Archive for IBPS

Indian Overseas Bank Clerk Jobs

Advt No.:HRDD/RECT/03/2012

indian overseas bank clerkIndian Overseas Bank, invites On-line applications from Indian Citizens for the post of Clerks

Qualifications (As on 01.08.2011):A Pass with 65% marks (60% for SC/ST/PC/EXSM) in HSC of 10 + 2 (10+2+3) pattern or Intermediate / Pre-University or any equivalent examination recognized by Central / State Government or U.T. Administration. (OR) A pass with 60% marks in Diploma in Banking (55% for SC/ST/PC/EXSM) recognized by Central / State Government or U.T. Administration. (OR) A degree with a minimum of 50% of marks (45% for SC/ST/PC/EXSM) in any discipline from a recognized University or any equivalent qualification recognized as such by the Central Govt.
Age as on 01.08.2011:18 Years
Pay Scale:Rs 7200 – 19300
State Code
Vacancies in States/Union Territories
Number of Post
11 Andhra Pradesh 85
12 Assam 5
13 Bihar 5
14 Chattisgarh 10
15 Delhi 34
16 Goa 2
17 Gujarat 80
18 Haryana 6
19 Himachal Pradesh 3
20 Jammu & Kashmir 1
21 Jharkhand 5
22 Karnataka 85
23 Kerala 95
24 Madhya Pradesh 10
25 Maharashtra 30
26 Arunachal Pradesh 2
27 Sikkim 4
28 Andaman 3
29 Orissa 30
30 Punjab 31
31 Rajasthan 25
32 Tamil Nadu 728
33 Uttar Pradesh 145
34 Uttrakhand 40
35 West Bengal 23
36 Chandigarh 3
37 Puducherry 10
IBPS Score Requirement :Candidates should be holding a valid CWE-CLERK 2011-12 Score card issued by IBPS and should have obtained a minimum score or above in each test components and Total Weighted Standard Score (TWSS) as mentioned below in the Common Written Examination (CWE) conducted by IBPS for Clerical cadre post in Nov / Dec 2011. Candidates should be able to produce the original Score Card in support of the scores mentioned in the on-line application form, if called for Interview.

Common Written Examination
General
Reserved (SC/ST/OBC/PC/ EXSM)
Test on Reasoning [TR] 24 & above 21 & above
Test on English Language [EN]
Test on Numerical Ability [NA]
Test on General Awareness with special reference to Banking Industry [GA]
Test on Computer Knowledge [CK]
Probation Period:On appointment, candidates will be on probation for a period of Six (6) months of active service from the date of joining as per the rules of the Bank. On successful completion of the Probation, and found if suitable, they will be confirmed in the services of the Bank.
Selection Process: Interview Mere eligibility/pass in the stipulated CWE conducted by IBPS for Clerical Cadre posts, shall not vest any right in a candidate for being called for Interview. Depending upon the number of vacancies (State/Union territory- wise), only those candidates who have been issued a valid score card in the Common Written Examination (CWE) for Clerical cadre posts conducted by IBPS in Nov/Dec 2011 and who rank sufficiently high in the order of merit based on the Total Weighted Standard Score (TWSS) as per the cut-off marks (State/Union territory- wise) decided by the Bank will be called for the Interview.
Application Fee/Intimation Charges: Intimation Charge have to be paid in cash only at Branches of Indian Overseas Bank before applying online.
FOR SC/ST/ PC/EXSM For all Others (Including OBC)
Rs 20/- Rs100/-
Interview Centres:The Interview will be held at major centres across the country and address of the same will be advised in the interview call letters. The Interviews will be held at different centres on different dates as decided by the Bank and will be communicated to the candidates shortlisted for Interview.

How to apply
Candidates are requested to apply only through online between 29.06.2012 and 14.07.2012

Important Dates
Opening Date For Online Registration
29.06.2012
Closing Date For Online Registration
14.07.2012
Payment Of Application Fee /Intimation Charge
29.06.2012 TO 14.07.2012
Tentative Date Of Interview
Aug/ Sept 2012

Reference

http://www.iob.in/uploads/CEDocuments/CLK%202012%20-%20ENGLISH%20AD.pdf

Call Letter Download

Time to download the call letter for IBPS

Before downloading keep the registration number(or roll no) and password (or date of birth) handy (This information would be mailed to your email address, when you have registered with IBPS)

Then login to

http://ibpsreg.sifyitest.com/ibpssoclfeb12/login.php

You might view a screen similar to

 

IBPS Specialist Officer Call Letter Download Page

IBPS Call Letter Download

Provide any of the options (don’t provide both) and submit

You would be redirected to the call letter page which need to be printed.

Or could save it as PDF for future print out as well.

Last date : 10/Mar/2012…Hurry Up !

Database Terminologies

Database


A database is a logically coherent collection of data with some inherent meaning, representing some aspect of real world and which is designed, built and populated with data for a specific purpose.
   

DBMS


It is a collection of programs that enables user to create and maintain a database. In other words it is general-purpose software that provides the users with the processes of defining, constructing and manipulating the database for various applications.
   

Database system

The database and DBMS software together is called as Database system.

   

Advantages of DBMS
  • Redundancy is controlled.
  • Unauthorised access is restricted.
  • Providing multiple user interfaces.
  • Enforcing integrity constraints.
  • Providing backup and recovery.

 

   

Disadvantage in File Processing System
  • Data redundancy & inconsistency.
  • Difficult in accessing data.
  • Data isolation.
  • Data integrity.
  • Concurrent access is not possible.
  • Security Problems.

   

three levels of abstraction:
  • Physical level: The lowest level of abstraction describes how data are stored.
  • Logical level: The next higher level of abstraction, describes what data are stored in database and what relationship among those data.
  • View level: The highest level of abstraction describes only part of entire database.

   

integrity rules

There are two Integrity rules.

  • Entity Integrity: States that “Primary key cannot have NULL value”
  • Referential Integrity: States that “Foreign Key can be either a NULL value or should be Primary Key value of other relation.

   

extension and intension


Extension -

It is the number of tuples present in a table at any instance. This is time dependent.

Intension -

It is a constant value that gives the name, structure of table and the constraints laid on it.

 

   

System R and its two major subsystems

System R was designed and developed over a period of – at IBM San Jose Research Center. It is a prototype and its purpose was to demonstrate that it is possible to build a Relational System that can be used in a real life environment to solve real life problems, with performance at least comparable to that of existing system.
Its two subsystems are

  • Research Storage
  • System Relational Data System.

   

data structure of System R


Unlike Relational systems in System R

  • Domains are not supported
  • Enforcement of candidate key uniqueness is optional
  • Enforcement of entity integrity is optional
  • Referential integrity is not enforced

   

Data Independence

Data independence means that “the application is independent of the storage structure and access strategy of data”. In other words, The ability to modify the schema definition in one level should not affect the schema definition in the next higher level.
Two types of Data Independence:

  • Physical Data Independence: Modification in physical level should not affect the logical level.
  • Logical Data Independence: Modification in logical level should affect the view level.

NOTE: Logical Data Independence is more difficult to achieve

   

view and data independence

A view may be thought of as a virtual table, that is, a table that does not really exist in its own right but is instead derived from one or more underlying base table. In other words, there is no stored file that direct represents the view instead a definition of view is stored in data dictionary.
Growth and restructuring of base tables is not reflected in views. Thus the view can insulate users from the effects of restructuring and growth in the database. Hence accounts for logical data independence.

   

Data Model

A collection of conceptual tools for describing data, data relationships data semantics and constraints.

   

E-R model

This data model is based on real world that consists of basic objects called entities and of relationship among these objects. Entities are described in a database by a set of attributes.

   

Object Oriented model

This model is based on collection of objects. An object contains values stored in instance variables with in the object. An object also contains bodies of code that operate on the object. These bodies of code are called methods. Objects that contain same types of values and the same methods are grouped together into classes.

   

Entity

It is a ‘thing’ in the real world with an independent existence.

   

Entity type

It is a collection (set) of entities that have same attributes.

   

Entity set

It is a collection of all entities of particular entity type in the database.

Extension of entity type

The collections of entities of a particular entity type are grouped together into an entity set.

   

Weak Entity set

An entity set may not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key, and its primary key compromises of its partial key and primary key of its parent entity, then it is said to be Weak Entity set.

an attribute

It is a particular property, which describes the entity.

   

Relation Schema and a Relation

A relation Schema denoted by R(A, A, …, An) is made up of the relation name R and the list of attributes Ai that it contains. A relation is defined as a set of tuples. Let r be the relation which contains set tuples (t, t, t, …, tn). Each tuple is an ordered list of n-values t=(v,v, …, vn).

degree of a Relation

It is the number of attribute of its relation schema.

Relationship

It is an association among two or more entities.

Relationship set

The collection (or set) of similar relationships.

Relationship type

Relationship type defines a set of associations or a relationship set among a given set of entity types.

degree of Relationship type

It is the number of entity type participating.

   

DDL (Data Definition Language)

A data base schema is specifies by a set of definitions expressed by a special language called DDL.

   

VDL (View Definition Language)

It specifies user views and their mappings to the conceptual schema.

   

SDL (Storage Definition Language)

This language is to specify the internal schema. This language may specify the mapping between two schemas.

   

Data Storage - Definition Language

The storage structures and access methods used by database system are specified by a set of definition in a special type of DDL called data storage-definition language.

   

DML (Data Manipulation Language)

This language that enable user to access or manipulate data as organised by appropriate data model.

  • Procedural DML or Low level: DML requires a user to specify what data are needed and how to get those data.
  • Non-Procedural DML or High level: DML requires a user to specify what data are needed without specifying how to get those data.

   

DML Compiler

It translates DML statements in a query language into low-level instruction that the query evaluation engine can understand.

   

Query evaluation engine

It executes low-level instruction generated by compiler.

   

DDL Interpreter

It interprets DDL statements and record them in tables containing metadata.

   

Record-at-a-time

The Low level or Procedural DML can specify and retrieve each record from a set of records. This retrieve of a record is said to be Record-at-a-time.

   

Set-at-a-time or Set-oriented

The High level or Non-procedural DML can specify and retrieve many records in a single DML statement. This retrieve of a record is said to be Set-at-a-time or Set-oriented.

   

Relational Algebra

It is procedural query language. It consists of a set of operations that take one or two relations as input and produce a new relation.

   

Relational Calculus

It is an applied predicate calculus specifically tailored for relational databases proposed by E.F. Codd. E.g. of languages based on it are DSL ALPHA, QUEL.

Tuple-oriented relational calculus differ from domain-oriented relational calculus

The tuple-oriented calculus uses a tuple variables i.e., variable whose only permitted values are tuples of that relation. E.g. QUEL
The domain-oriented calculus has domain variables i.e., variables that range over the underlying domains instead of over relation. E.g. ILL, DEDUCE.

   

normalization and normal forms

It is a process of analysing the given relation schemas based on their Functional Dependencies (FDs) and primary key to achieve the properties

  • Minimizing redundancy
  • Minimizing insertion, deletion and update anomalies.

Functional Dependency

A Functional dependency is denoted by X Y between two sets of attributes X and Y that are subsets of R specifies a constraint on the possible tuple that can form a relation state r of R. The constraint is for any two tuples t and t in r if t[X] = t[X] then they have t[Y] = t[Y]. This means the value of X component of a tuple uniquely determines the value of component Y.

functional dependency F said to be minimal when

  • Every dependency in F has a single attribute for its right hand side.
  • We cannot replace any dependency X A in F with a dependency Y A where Y is a proper subset of X and still have a set of dependency that is equivalent to F.
  • We cannot remove any dependency from F and still have set of dependency that is equivalent to F.

Multivalued dependency

Multivalued dependency denoted by X Y specified on relation schema R, where X and Y are both subsets of R, specifies the following constraint on any relation r of R: if two tuples t and t exist in r such that t[X] = t[X] then t and t should also exist in r with the following properties

  • t[x] = t[X] = t[X] = t[X]
  • t[Y] = t[Y] and t[Y] = t[Y]
  • t[Z] = t[Z] and t[Z] = t[Z]

where [Z = (R-(X U Y)) ]

Lossless join property

It guarantees that the spurious tuple generation does not occur with respect to relation schemas after decomposition.

NF (Normal Form)

The domain of attribute must include only atomic (simple, indivisible) values.

Fully Functional dependency

It is based on concept of full functional dependency. A functional dependency X Y is full functional dependency if removal of any attribute A from X means that the dependency does not hold any more.

First NF

A relation schema R is in NF if it is in NF and every non-prime attribute A in R is fully functionally dependent on primary key.

Second NF

A relation schema R is in second NF if it is in first NF and for every FD X A either of the following is true

  • X is a Super-key of R.
  • A is a prime attribute of R.

In other words, if every non prime attribute is non-transitively dependent on primary key.

BCNF (Boyce-Codd Normal Form)

A relation schema R is in BCNF if it is in NF and satisfies an additional constraint that for every FD X A, X must be a candidate key.

Fourth NF

A relation schema R is said to be in NF if for every Multivalued dependency X Y that holds over R, one of following is true

  • X is subset or equal to (or) XY = R.
  • X is a super key.

Fifth NF

A Relation schema R is said to be NF if for every join dependency {R, R, …, Rn} that holds R, one the following is true

  • Ri = R for some i.
  • The join dependency is implied by the set of FD, over R in which the left side is key of R.

Domain-Key Normal Form

A relation is said to be in DKNF if all constraints and dependencies that should hold on the the constraint can be enforced by simply enforcing the domain constraint and key constraint on the relation.

   

Keys – Partial, alternate, compound and artificial

It is a set of attributes that can uniquely identify weak entities and that are related to same owner entity. It is sometime called as Discriminator.

Alternate Key:

All Candidate Keys excluding the Primary Key are known as Alternate Keys.

Artificial Key:

If no obvious key, either stand alone or compound is available, then the last resort is to simply create a key, by assigning a unique number to each record or occurrence. Then this is known as developing an artificial key.

Compound Key:

If no single data element uniquely identifies occurrences within a construct, then combining multiple elements to create a unique identifier for the construct is known as creating a compound key.

Natural Key:

When one of the data elements stored within a construct is utilized as the primary key, then it is called the natural key.

 

   

Indexing


Indexing is a technique for determining how quickly specific data can be found.
Types:

  • Binary search style indexing
  • B-Tree indexing
  • Inverted list indexing
  • Memory resident table
  • Table indexing

system catalog or catalog relation How is better known as

A RDBMS maintains a description of all the data that it contains, information about every relation and index that it contains. This information is stored in a collection of relations maintained by the system called metadata. It is also called data dictionary.

   

query optimization

The phase that identifies an efficient execution plan for evaluating a query that has the least estimated cost is referred to as query optimization.

   

Join Dependency

A Join dependency is generalization of Multivalued dependency.A JD {R, R, …, Rn} is said to hold over a relation R if R, R, R, …, Rn is a lossless-join decomposition of R . There is no set of sound and complete inference rules for JD.

Inclusion Dependency:

An Inclusion Dependency is a statement of the form that some columns of a relation are contained in other columns. A foreign key constraint is an example of inclusion dependency.

 

   

durability in DBMS

Once the DBMS informs the user that a transaction has successfully completed, its effects should persist even if the system crashes before all its changes are reflected on disk. This property is called durability.

   

Atomicity

Either all actions are carried out or none are. Users should not have to worry about the effect of incomplete transactions. DBMS ensures this by undoing the actions of incomplete transactions.

   

Aggregation:

A concept which is used to model a relationship between a collection of entities and relationships. It is used when we need to express a relationship among relationships.

 

   

Phantom Deadlock

In distributed deadlock detection, the delay in propagating local information might cause the deadlock detection algorithms to identify deadlocks that do not really exist. Such situations are called phantom deadlocks and they lead to unnecessary aborts.

   

checkpoint


A Checkpoint is like a snapshot of the DBMS state. By taking checkpoints, the DBMS can reduce the amount of work to be done during restart in the event of subsequent crashes.

   

Different phases of transaction are
  • Analysis phase
  • Redo Phase
  • Undo phase

   

flat file database

It is a database in which there are no programs or user access languages. It has no cross-file capabilities but is user-friendly and provides user-interface management.

   

transparent DBMS

It is one, which keeps its Physical Structure hidden from user.

Network, Hierarchical schemas and their properties

Network schema uses a graph data structure to organize records example for such a database management system is CTCG while a hierarchical schema uses a tree data structure example for such a system is IMS.

   

query

A query with respect to DBMS relates to user commands that are used to interact with a data base. The query language can be classified into data definition language and data manipulation language.

   

Correlated subquery

Subqueries, or nested queries, are used to bring back a set of rows to be used by the parent query. Depending on how the subquery is written, it can be executed once for the parent query or it can be executed once for each row returned by the parent query. If the subquery is executed for each row of the parent, this is called a correlated subquery.
A correlated subquery can be easily identified if it contains any references to the parent subquery columns in its WHERE clause. Columns from the subquery cannot be referenced anywhere else in the parent query. The following example demonstrates a non-correlated subquery.
E.g. Select * From CUST Where ‘// IN (Select ODATE From ORDER Where CUST.CNUM = ORDER.CNUM)

Addition, deletion and modification are the primitive operations common to all record management systems

‘Edit’ Buffer all the commands that are typed in are stored

unary operations in Relational Algebra

   

PROJECTION and SELECTION.

Are the resulting relations of PRODUCT and JOIN operation the same

No.
PRODUCT: Concatenation of every row in one relation with every row in another.
JOIN: Concatenation of rows from one relation and related rows from another.

   

RDBMS KERNEL

Two important pieces of RDBMS architecture are the kernel, which is the software, and the data dictionary, which consists of the system-level data structures used by the kernel to manage the database
You might think of an RDBMS as an operating system (or set of subsystems), designed specifically for controlling data access; its primary functions are storing, retrieving, and securing data. An RDBMS maintains its own list of authorized users and their associated privileges; manages memory caches and paging; controls locking for concurrent resource usage; dispatches and schedules user requests; and manages space usage within its table-space structures.

   

the sub-systems of a RDBMS

I/O, Security, Language Processing, Process Control, Storage Management, Logging and Recovery, Distribution Control, Transaction Control, Memory Management, Lock Management

   

data dictionary


Data dictionary is a set of tables and database objects that is stored in a special area of the database and maintained exclusively by the kernel.

the job of the information stored in data-dictionary

The information in the data dictionary validates the existence of the objects, provides access to them, and maps the actual physical storage location.

   

SQL

SQL and the differences between SQL and other conventional programming Languages

SQL is a nonprocedural language that is designed specifically for data access operations on normalized relational database structures. The primary difference between SQL and other conventional programming languages is that SQL statements specify what data operations should be performed rather than how to perform them.

   

set of files on disk that compose a database in Oracle

There are three major sets of files on disk that compose a database. All the files are binary. These are

  • Database files
  • Control files
  • Redo logs

The most important of these are the database files where the actual data resides. The control files and the redo logs support the functioning of the architecture itself.
All three sets of files must be present, open, and available to Oracle for any data on the database to be useable. Without these files, you cannot access the database, and the database administrator might have to recover some or all of the database using a backup, if there is one.

   

an Oracle Instance

The Oracle system processes, also known as Oracle background processes, provide functions for the user processes—functions that would otherwise be done by the user processes themselves
Oracle database-wide system memory is known as the SGA, the system global area or shared global area. The data and control structures in the SGA are shareable, and all the Oracle background processes and user processes can use them.
The combination of the SGA and the Oracle background processes is known as an Oracle instance

the four Oracle system processes that must always be up and running for the database to be useable

The four Oracle system processes that must always be up and running for the database to be useable include DBWR (Database Writer), LGWR (Log Writer), SMON (System Monitor), and PMON (Process Monitor).

database files, control files and log files.

  • Database Files
    The database files hold the actual data and are typically the largest in size. Depending on their sizes, the tables (and other objects) for all the user accounts can go in one database file—but that’s not an ideal situation because it does not make the database structure very flexible for controlling access to storage for different users, putting the database on different disk drives, or backing up and restoring just part of the database.
    You must have at least one database file but usually, more than one files are used. In terms of accessing and using the data in the tables and other objects, the number (or location) of the files is immaterial.
    The database files are fixed in size and never grow bigger than the size at which they were created
  • Control Files
    The control files and redo logs support the rest of the architecture. Any database must have at least one control file, although you typically have more than one to guard against loss. The control file records the name of the database, the date and time it was created, the location of the database and redo logs, and the synchronization information to ensure that all three sets of files are always in step. Every time you add a new database or redo log file to the database, the information is recorded in the control files.
  • Redo Logs
    Any database must have at least two redo logs. These are the journals for the database; the redo logs record all changes to the user objects or system objects. If any type of failure occurs, the changes recorded in the redo logs can be used to bring the database to a consistent state without losing any committed transactions. In the case of non-data loss failure, Oracle can apply the information in the redo logs automatically without intervention from the DBA.
    The redo log files are fixed in size and never grow dynamically from the size at which they were created.

   

ROWID

The ROWID is a unique database-wide physical address for every row on every table. Once assigned (when the row is first inserted into the database), it never changes until the row is deleted or the table is dropped.
The ROWID consists of the following three components, the combination of which uniquely identifies the physical storage location of the row.

  • Oracle database file number, which contains the block with the rows
  • Oracle block address, which contains the row
  • The row within the block (because each block can hold many rows)

The ROWID is used internally in indexes as a quick means of retrieving rows with a particular key value. Application developers also use it in SQL statements as a quick way to access a row once they know the ROWID

   

.iOracle Block

Oracle “formats” the database files into a number of Oracle blocks when they are first created—making it easier for the RDBMS software to manage the files and easier to read data into the memory areas.
The block size should be a multiple of the operating system block size. Regardless of the block size, the entire block is not available for holding data; Oracle takes up some space to manage the contents of the block. This block header has a minimum size, but it can grow.
These Oracle blocks are the smallest unit of storage. Increasing the Oracle block size can improve performance, but it should be done only when the database is first created.
Each Oracle block is numbered sequentially for each database file starting at . Two blocks can have the same block address if they are in different database files.

   

database Trigger

A database trigger is a PL/SQL block that can defined to automatically execute for insert, update, and delete statements against a table. The trigger can e defined to execute once for the entire statement or once for every row that is inserted, updated, or deleted. For any one table, there are twelve events for which you can define database triggers. A database trigger can call database procedures that are also written in PL/SQL.

   

Backup and recovery. Of Oracle

Along with the RDBMS software, Oracle provides two utilities that you can use to back up and restore the database. These utilities are Export and Import.
The Export utility dumps the definitions and data for the specified part of the database to an operating system binary file. The Import utility reads the file produced by an export, recreates the definitions of objects, and inserts the data
If Export and Import are used as a means of backing up and recovering the database, all the changes made to the database cannot be recovered since the export was performed. The best you can do is recover the database to the time when the export was last performed.

.

   

stored-procedures and advantages of using them.

Stored procedures are database objects that perform a user defined operation. A stored procedure can have a set of compound SQL statements. A stored procedure executes the SQL commands and returns the result to the client. Stored procedures are used to reduce network traffic.

   

exceptions handling in PL/SQL

PL/SQL exception handling is a mechanism for dealing with run-time errors encountered during procedure execution. Use of this mechanism enables execution to continue if the error is not severe enough to cause procedure termination.
The exception handler must be defined within a subprogram specification. Errors cause the program to raise an exception with a transfer of control to the exception-handler block. After the exception handler executes, control returns to the block in which the handler was defined. If there are no more executable statements in the block, control returns to the caller.
User-Defined Exceptions
PL/SQL enables the user to define exception handlers in the declarations area of subprogram specifications. User accomplishes this by naming an exception

In addition to this list of exceptions, there is a catch-all exception named OTHERS that traps all errors for which specific error handling has not been established.

   

“PL/SQL

The concept of overloading in PL/SQL relates to the idea that you can define procedures and functions with the same name. PL/SQL does not look only at the referenced name, however, to resolve a procedure or function call. The count and data types of formal parameters are also considered.
PL/SQL also attempts to resolve any procedure or function calls in locally defined packages before looking at globally defined packages or internal functions. To further ensure calling the proper procedure, you can use the dot notation. Prefacing a procedure or function name with the package name fully qualifies any procedure or function reference.

   

It is a program module that provides the interface between the low-level data stored in database, application programs and queries submitted to the system.

   

Buffer Manager

It is a program module, which is responsible for fetching data from disk storage into main memory and deciding what data to be cache in memory.

   

Transaction Manager

It is a program module, which ensures that database, remains in a consistent state despite system failures and concurrent transaction execution proceeds without conflicting.

   

File Manager

It is a program module, which manages the allocation of space on disk storage and data structure used to represent information stored on a disk.

   

Authorization and Integrity manager

It is the program module, which tests for the satisfaction of integrity constraint and checks the authority of user to access data.

   

stand-alone procedures

Procedures that are not part of a package are known as stand-alone because they independently defined. A good example of a stand-alone procedure is one written in a SQL*Forms application. These types of procedures are not available for reference from other Oracle tools. Another limitation of stand-alone procedures is that they are compiled at run time, which slows execution.

   

different types of cursors.

PL/SQL uses cursors for all database information accesses statements. The language supports the use two types of cursors

  • Implicit
  • Explicit

   

cold backup and hot backup (in case of Oracle)
  • Cold Backup:
    It is copying the three sets of files (database files, redo logs, and control file) when the instance is shut down. This is a straight file copy, usually from the disk directly to tape. You must shut down the instance to guarantee a consistent copy.
    If a cold backup is performed, the only option available in the event of data file loss is restoring all the files from the latest backup. All work performed on the database since the last backup is lost.
  • Hot Backup:
    Some sites (such as worldwide airline reservations systems) cannot shut down the database while making a backup copy of the files. The cold backup is not an available option.
    So different means of backing up database must be used — the hot backup. Issue a SQL command to indicate to Oracle, on a tablespace-by-tablespace basis, that the files of the tablespace are to backed up. The users can continue to make full use of the files, including making changes to the data. Once the user has indicated that he/she wants to back up the tablespace files, he/she can use the operating system to copy those files to the desired backup destination.
    The database must be running in ARCHIVELOG mode for the hot backup option.
    If a data loss failure does occur, the lost database files can be restored using the hot backup and the online and offline redo logs created since the backup was done. The database is restored to the most consistent state without any loss of committed transactions.

   

Proactive, Retroactive and Simultaneous Update
  • Proactive Update:
    The updates that are applied to database before it becomes effective in real world .
  • Retroactive Update:
    The updates that are applied to database after it becomes effective in real world .
  • Simulatneous Update:
    The updates that are applied to database at the same time when it becomes effective in real world .

   
 

Network Design

Computer networks also differ in their design. The two types of high-level network design are called client-server and peer-to-peer. Client-server networks feature centralized server computers that store email, Web pages, files and or applications. On a peer-to-peer network, conversely, all computers tend to support the same functions. Client-server networks are much more common in business and peer-to-peer networks much more common in homes.

 

Topology in Network Design

 

Think of a topology as a network’s virtual shape or structure. This shape does not necessarily correspond to the actual physical layout of the devices on the network. For example, the computers on a home LAN may be arranged in a circle in a family room, but it would be highly unlikely to find a ring topology there.

Network topologies are categorized into the following basic types:

 

  • bus
  • ring
  • star
  • tree
  • mesh

More complex networks can be built as hybrids of two or more of the above basic topologies.

Bus Topology

Bus networks (not to be confused with the system bus of a computer) use a common backbone to connect all devices. A single cable, the backbone functions as a shared communication medium that devices attach or tap into with an interface connector. A device wanting to communicate with another device on the network sends a broadcast message onto the wire that all other devices see, but only the intended recipient actually accepts and processes the message.

Ethernet bus topologies are relatively easy to install and don’t require much cabling compared to the alternatives. 10Base-2 (“ThinNet”) and 10Base-5 (“ThickNet”) both were popular Ethernet cabling options many years ago for bus topologies. However, bus networks work best with a limited number of devices. If more than a few dozen computers are added to a network bus, performance problems will likely result. In addition, if the backbone cable fails, the entire network effectively becomes unusable.

 Ring Topology

In a ring network, every device has exactly two neighbors for communication purposes. All messages travel through a ring in the same direction (either “clockwise” or “counterclockwise”). A failure in any cable or device breaks the loop and can take down the entire network.

To implement a ring network, one typically uses FDDI, SONET, or Token Ring technology. Ring topologies are found in some office buildings or school campuses.

 Star Topology

Many home networks use the star topology. A star network features a central connection point called a “hub” that may be a hub, switch or router. Devices typically connect to the hub with Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) Ethernet.

Compared to the bus topology, a star network generally requires more cable, but a failure in any star network cable will only take down one computer’s network access and not the entire LAN. (If the hub fails, however, the entire network also fails.)

 Tree Topology

Tree topologies integrate multiple star topologies together onto a bus. In its simplest form, only hub devices connect directly to the tree bus, and each hub functions as the “root” of a tree of devices. This bus/star hybrid approach supports future expandability of the network much better than a bus (limited in the number of devices due to the broadcast traffic it generates) or a star (limited by the number of hub connection points) alone.

 

Mesh Topology

Mesh topologies involve the concept of routes. Unlike each of the previous topologies, messages sent on a mesh network can take any of several possible paths from source to destination. (Recall that even in a ring, although two cable paths exist, messages can only travel in one direction.) Some WANs, most notably the Internet, employ mesh routing. A mesh network in which every device connects to every other is called a full mesh.

Area Networks

 

Networks can be categorized in several different ways. One approach defines the type of network according to the geographic area it spans. Local area networks (LANs), for example, typically reach across a single home, whereas wide area networks (WANs), reach across cities, states, or even across the world. The Internet is the world’s largest public WAN.

 

One way to categorize the different types of computer network designs is by their scope or scale. For historical reasons, the networking industry refers to nearly every type of design as some kind of area network. Common examples of area network types are:

 

LAN – Local Area Network

A LAN connects network devices over a relatively short distance. A networked office building, school, or home usually contains a single LAN, though sometimes one building will contain a few small LANs (perhaps one per room), and occasionally a LAN will span a group of nearby buildings. In TCP/IP networking, a LAN is often but not always implemented as a single IP subnet.

In addition to operating in a limited space, LANs are also typically owned, controlled, and managed by a single person or organization. They also tend to use certain connectivity technologies, primarily Ethernet and Token Ring.

 

WAN – Wide Area Network

As the term implies, a WAN spans a large physical distance. The Internet is the largest WAN, spanning the Earth.

A WAN is a geographically-dispersed collection of LANs. A network device called a router connects LANs to a WAN. In IP networking, the router maintains both a LAN address and a WAN address.

 

A WAN differs from a LAN in several important ways. Most WANs (like the Internet) are not owned by any one organization but rather exist under collective or distributed ownership and management. WANs tend to use technology like ATM, Frame Relay and X.25 for connectivity over the longer distances.

 

LAN, WAN and Home Networking

Residences typically employ one LAN and connect to the Internet WAN via an Internet Service Provider (ISP) using a broadband modem. The ISP provides a WAN IP address to the modem, and all of the computers on the home network use LAN (so-called private) IP addresses. All computers on the home LAN can communicate directly with each other but must go through a central gateway, typically a broadband router, to reach the ISP.

Other Types of Area Networks

While LAN and WAN are by far the most popular network types mentioned, other area networks include

Wireless Local Area Network – a LAN based on WiFi wireless network technology

Metropolitan Area Network – a network spanning a physical area larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN, such as a city. A MAN is typically owned an operated by a single entity such as a government body or large corporation.

Campus Area Network – a network spanning multiple LANs but smaller than a MAN, such as on a university or local business campus.

Storage Area Network – connects servers to data storage devices through a technology like Fibre Channel.

System Area Network – links high-performance computers with high-speed connections in a cluster configuration. Also known as Cluster Area Network

Mother Board

 

The main printed circuit board in a computer is known as the Motherboard. It is also known as System Board, Main Board or Printed Wired Board (PWB). Attached to it, we have numerous motherboard components that are crucial in the functioning of the computer.

 

The motherboard acts as the connection point where major computer components are attached to. It holds many of the crucial components of the system like the processor, memory, expansion slots and connects directly or indirectly to every part of the PC.

 

The type of motherboard installed in a PC has a great effect on system speed and expansion capabilities.

 

 

MOTHERBOARD COMPONENTS

The motherboard holds all the major logic components of the computer. Here we are going to see with no particular order, some of those major motherboard components and their function in a computer or to be more precise in your computer.

 

 

CPU- Central Processing Unit

 

It is also known as the microprocessor or the processor. It is the brain of the computer, and it is responsible for fetching, decoding and executing program instructions as well as performing mathematical and logical calculations.

 

The processor chip is identified by the processor type and the manufacturer; and this information is usually inscribed on the processor chip e.g. Intel 386, Advanced Micro Devices (AMD) 386, Cyrix 486, Pentium MMX, (old processor types) Intel Core 2Duo e.t.c.

 

If the processor chip is not on the motherboard, you can identify the processor socket as socket 1 to Socket 8, LGA 775 e.t.c. This can help you identify the processor that fits in the socket. For example a 486DX processor fits into Socket 3.

 

 

Memory Modules

Main Memory / Random Access Memory (RAM)

Random access memory or RAM most commonly refers to computer chips that temporarily store dynamic data when you are working with your computer to enhance the computer performance. In other words, it is the working place of your computer where active programs and data are loaded so that any time time the processor requres them, it doesn’t have to fetch them from the hard disk which will take a longer access time.

 

Random access memory is volatile memory, meaning it loses its contents once power is turned off. This is different from non-volatile memory such as hard disks and flash memory, which do not require a power source to retain data. When a computer shuts down properly, all data located in random access memory is returned back to permanent storage on the hard drive or flash drive. At the next boot-up, RAM begins to fill with programs automatically loaded at startup, and with files opened by the user a process called booting.

  BIOS Chip

BIOS- Basic Input Output System

 

BIOS is a term that stands for basic input/output system, which consists of low-level software that controls the system hardware and acts as an interface between the operating system and the hardware. Most people know the term BIOS by another name—device drivers, or just drivers. In other words, the BIOS is drivers, meaning all of them. BIOS is essentially the link between hardware and software in a system.

 

All motherboards include a small block of Read Only Memory (ROM) which is separate from the main system memory used for loading and running software. On PCs, the BIOS contains all the code required to control the keyboard, display screen, disk drives, serial communications, and a number of miscellaneous functions.

 

The system BIOS is a ROM chip on the motherboard used by the computer during the startup routine (boot process) to check out the system and prepare to run the hardware. The BIOS is stored on a ROM chip because ROM retains information even when no power is being supplied to the computer.

  CMOS Battery

CMOS-Complimentary Metal Oxide Semiconductor

Motherboards also include a small separate block of memory made from CMOS RAM chips which is kept alive by a battery (known as a CMOS battery) even when the PC’s power is off. This prevents reconfiguration when the PC is powered on.

CMOS devices require very little power to operate.

The CMOS RAM is used to store basic Information about the PC’s configuration e.g.

  •  Floppy disk and hard disk drive types
  • CPU
  • RAM size
  • Date and time
  • Serial and parallel port information
  • Plug and Play information
  • Power Saving settings

The Other Important data kept in CMOS memory is the time and date, which is updated by a Real Time Clock (RTC).

 

Cache Memory

 

It is a small block of high-speed memory (RAM) that enhances PC performance by pre-loading information from the (relatively slow) main memory and passing it to the processor on demand.

Most CPUS have an internal cache (in-built in the processor) which is referred to as Level-I cache memory or primary cache memory. This can be supplemented by external cache memory fitted on the motherboard. This is the Level-2 Cache memory or secondary cache. Some CPUs have both L1 and L2 cache built-in and designate the separate cache chip as Level 3 (L3) cache.

 

 PCI Slots

Expansion Buses

An input/output pathway from the CPU to peripheral devices typically made up of a series of slots on the motherboard. Expansion boards (cards) plug into the bus. PCI is the common expansion bus in a PC and other hardware platforms. Buses carry signals, such as data; memory addresses, power and control signals from component to component.

 

Expansion buses enhance the PCs capabilities by allowing users to add missing features in their computers in form of adapter cards that are slotted in expansion slots.

 

The different types of buses include PCI, ISA, and EISA expansion bus.

 

Chipset

 

A chipset is a group of small circuits that coordinate the flow of data to and from key components of a PC. This includes the CPU itself, the main memory, the secondary cache and any devices situated on the buses. The chipset also controls data flow to and from hard disks, and other devices connected to the IDE channels. A computer has got two main chipsets:-

 

The NorthBridge (also called the memory controller) is in charge of controlling transfers between the processor and the RAM, which is way it is located physically near the processor. It is sometimes called the GMCH, for Graphic and Memory Controller Hub.

The SouthBridge (also called the input/output controller or expansion controller) handles communications between peripheral devices. It is also called the ICH (I/O Controller Hub). The tem bridge is generally used to designate a component which connects two buses.

Chipset manufacturers include SIS, VIA, ALI, OPTI e.t.c.

 

Cpu Clock

The clock synchronizes the operation of all parts of the PC and provides the basic timing signal for the CPU. Using a quartz crystal, the CPU clock breathes life into the microprocessor by feeding it a constant flow of pulses. For example, a 200 MHz CPU receives 200 million pulses per second from the clock. A 2 GHz CPU gets two billion pulses per second. Similarly, in a communications device, a clock may be used to synchronize the data pulses between sender and receiver.

A “real-time clock,” also called the “system clock,” keeps track of the time of day and makes this data available to the software. A “timesharing clock” interrupts the CPU at regular intervals and allows the operating system to divide its time between active users and/or applications.

 Switches and Jumpers

 

DIP (Dual In-line Package) switches are small electronic switches found on the circuit board that can be turned on or off just like a normal switch. They are very small and so are usually flipped with a pointed object such as a screwdriver, bent paper clip or pen top. Care should be taken when cleaning near DIP switches as some solvents may destroy them.

 Jumper pins

Jumpers are small pins on the board with plastic or metal devices that go over the pins. This device is called a bridge or a jumper cap. When the bridge is connected to any two pins via a shorting link, it completes the circuit and a certain configuration has been achieved.

 Jumper cap

Typically, a jumper consists of a plastic plug that fits over a pair of protruding pins. Jumpers are sometimes used to configure expansion boards. By placing a jumper plug over a different set of pins, you can change a board’s parameters.

IT Officer Study Material

Reasoning Questions

IBPS Specialist Officer Reasoning Model Question Paper

 

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

(A) BDF

(B) VXZ

(C) FIK

(D) MOQ

(E) LNP

Ans : (C)

 

2. Among A. B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D

scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who

among them scored least marks among them?

(A) A

(B) C

(C) B

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

3. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many

students arc there between M and H?

(A) 22

(B) 23

(C) 24

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

4. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th

July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but

before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday?

(A) 10th

(B) 11th

(C) 10th or 11th

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

5. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five

numbers?

254 319 963 842 697

(A) 5

(B) 1

(C) 6

(D) 4

(E) 9

Ans : (D)

 

6. What should come next in the following number series?

9898798769876598765498765

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 2

(D) 1

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

(A) Copper

(B) Iron

(C) Aluminium

(D) Zinc

(E) Steel

Ans : (E)

 

8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da naja’ means ‘you may

come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code

language?

(A) da

(B) ja

(C) na

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

9. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED

written in that code?

(A) PSHBMCDRH

(B) BHSPMCDRH

(C) BHSPOCDRH

(D) BHSPNHRDC

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

10. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away

from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in

descending order?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (C)

 

11. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to

(A) JM

(B) lL

(C) JL

(D) 1K

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

12. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE

written in that code?

(A) 5427

(B) 5247

(C) 5847

(D) 5237

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

13. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each

letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (B)

 

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

(A) 19

(B) 17

(C) 23

(D) 29

(E) 27

Ans : (E)

 

15. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as

many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (D)

 

 

Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions

numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be

at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically

follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers

(A) If only conclusion I follows.

(B) If only conclusion II follows.

(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements:

All pots are rings.

All bangles are rings.

All rings arc paints.

Conclusions:

I. Some paints are pots.

II. Some bangles are paints.

Ans : (A)

 

17. Statements:

All goats are (lowers.

No flower is branch.

Some branches arc roots.

Conclusions:

I. Some roots are goats.

II. No root is goat.

Ans : (C)

 

 

 

18. Statements:

Some trees arc boxes.

All boxes are bricks.

All bricks are dogs.

Conclusions:

I. Some dogs are trees.

II. Some bricks arc trees.

Ans : (E)

 

19. Statements:

All tables arc windows.

All windows are rooms.

All rooms arc buses.

Conclusions:

I. Some buses arc tables.

II. Some rooms are tables.

Ans : (E)

 

20. Statements:

Some forests arc huts.

Some huts are walls.

Some walls are nets.

Conclusions:

I. Some nets arc forests.

II. Some nets are huts.

Ans : (D)

 

21. Statements:

All chair are pens.

Some pens are knives.

All knives are rats.

Conclusions:

I. Some rats are chairs.

II. Some rats are pens.

Ans : (B)

 

22. Statements:

Some desks arc tents.

Some tents are rivers.

All rivers are ponds.

Conclusions:

I. Some ponds arc tents.

II. Some ponds are desks.

Ans : (A)

 

Directions—(Q.23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions

given below—

B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T 1 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y

 

23. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(A) l@4

(B) ©TH

(C) WP6

(D) #73

(E) 921

Ans : (E)

 

24. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either

immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Ans : (D)

 

25. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be

the eleventh from the right end?

(A) U

(B) T

(C) F

(D) H

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (B)

 

27. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (A)

 

28. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (C)

 

29. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the

above arrangement?

(A) %

(B) W

(C) $

(D) J

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

 

Directions (Q.30—36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by

four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the

combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter

coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter

combinations correctly represents the group of digits! symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as

the answer.

Digit/Symbol:

4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d

Letter Code:

P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L

Conditions:

(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be

interchanged.

(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be

coded as the code for the digit.

(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.

(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.

30. 46*389

(A) PNBIJT

(B) XNBIJX

(C) TNBlip

(D) PNBIJP

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

31. 931%©d

(A) TIQMHL

(B) LIQMHT

(C) LIQMHL

(D) TIQMHT

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

32. 7#$%35

(A) GERMIU

(B) UERMIG

(C) GERMIG

(D) XERMIX

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

 

33. 8732@9

(A) TGIAFJ

(B) YGIAFY

(C) JGIAFT

(D) XGIAFX

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

 

34. 2*#836

(A) YBEJIY

(B) ABEJIN

(C) NBEJIA

(D) XBEJLX

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

35. $1896©

(A) RQJTNH

(B) HQJTNR

(C) RQJTNR

(D) YQJTNY

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

36. 4%@93*

(A) PMFTIB

(B) PMFTIP

(C) BMFTIB

(D) XMFTIX

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

 

Directions—(Q.37—43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are used with

the following meanings illustrated.

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.

‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the

two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers:

(A) If only conclusion I is true.

(B) If only conclusion II is true.

(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.

 

37. Statements: V % B, B $ D, D © E

Conclusions:

I. E d B

II. D @ V

Ans : (B)

 

38. Statements: H $ N, N % R, R @ J

Conclusions:

I. R @ H

II. J %H

Ans : (A)

 

39. Statements: F d T, T $ M, M © R

Conclusions:

I. R $ F

II. M © F

Ans : (B)

 

40. Statements: W © D, D $ B, B @ H

Conclusions:

I. H % D

II.W @ B

Ans : (D)

 

41. Statements: F @ R, R © V, V $ T

Conclusions:

I. V % F

II. F @ T

Ans : (A)

 

42. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W

Conclusions:

I. W % T

II. H © N

Ans : (E)

 

43. Statements: M @ J, J © R, R d K

Conclusions:

I. K d I

II. K % J

Ans : (C)

 

 

Directions—(Q.44—49) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—

M, N, P. R. T, W, F and H arc sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of

M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is

second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.

44. Who is fourth to the right of R?

(A) T

(B) R

(C) W

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

 

45. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the third

person?

(A) NHM

(B) PHN

(C) TRP

(D) TWF

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

46. Who is second to the right of F?

(A) M

(B) R

(C) T

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

 

Ans : (C)

 

47. Who is third to the right of H?

(A) T

(B) W

(C) R

(D) F

(E) Data inadequate

Ans : (D)

 

48. Who is to the immediate left of R?

(A) P

(B) H

(C) W

(D) T

(E) Data inadequate

Ans : (D)

 

49. Who is to the immediate right of H?

(A) R

(B) F

(C) M

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

 

50. Who is to the immediate right of P?

(A) H

(B) F

(C) R

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

Quantitative Aptitude Questions

IBPS Specialist Officer Quantitative Aptitude Model

Question Paper

1. 434 x 645=?

(A) 27840

(B) 297930

(C) 279903

(D) 279930

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

2. 7 x ? =29.05

(A) 4.05

(B) 4.15

(C) 3.95

(D) 4.28

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

3. 725 / 25 – 13 = ?

(A) 16

(B) 29

(C) 12

(D) 18

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?

(A) 314

(B) 313

(C) 312

(D) 311

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

5. 559 + 995 = ? x 16

(A) 92.05

(B) 95.25

(C) 93.15

(D) 94.35

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. ((337 +146) x 8)=?

(A) 3884

(B) 1515

(C) 3864

(D) 1505

(E) 3846

Ans : (C)

7. 806 / 26 =?

(A) 30

(B) 32

(C) 34

(D) 36

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

8. 7 3/4 + 5 1/4 + 8 1/4 = ?

(A) 20 1/4

(B) 21 1/2

(C) 21 3/4

(D) 21 3/4

(E) 20 3/4

Ans : (B)

9. 4758-2782-1430=?

(A) 356

(B) 396

(C) 486

(D) 546

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

10. ((8)2 + 164 + 4) / 14 = ?

(A) 25

(B) 64

(C) 8

(D) 7.5

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. 2/5 + 10/13 + 7/13 = ?

(A) 2 23/65

(B) 1 46/65

(C) 2 10/13

(D) 46/65

(E) 1 10/13

Ans : (B)

12. 248 of 7/8 + 110 of 20% = ?

(A) 192

(B) 202

(C) 212

(D) 239

(E) 242

Ans : (D)

13. 576 ÷ ? x 114 = 8208

(A) 8

(B) 7

(C) 6

(D) 9

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

14. 280% of 460 =?

(A) 1188

(B) 1284

(C) 1288

(D) 1280

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

15. 484 of 3/4 + 366 of 5/6 = ?

(A) 663

(B) 844

(C) 668

(D) 848

(E) 666

Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?

(A) 118 x 13+209 x 42

(B) 174 x 10+222 x 19

(C) 173 x 12+221 x 24

(D) 169 x 16+167 x 50

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

17. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?

(A) Rs. 3.377

(B) Rs. 4.473

(C) Rs. 4.377

(D) Rs. 4.743

(E) Rs. 4.347

Ans : (D)

18. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance

covered by the bus?

(A) 343 km

(B) 283 km

(C) 353 km

(D) 245 km

(E) 340 km

Ans : (A)

19. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?

(A) 20

(B) 21

(C) 22

(D) 23

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

20. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three?

(A) 12

(B) 15

(C) 13

(D) 16

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

21. 1/4th of 2/5th of a number is 82. What is the number?

(A) 410

(B) 820

(C) 420

(D) 220

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

22. Find the average of the following set of scores:

118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229

(A) 148

(B) 152

(C) 156

(D) 160

(E) 175

Ans : (E)

23. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?

(A) 43

(B) 48

(C) 55

(D) 53

(E) 62

Ans : (D)

24. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?

(A) 59

(B) 58

(C) 57

(D) 56

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

25. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of

bananas and 3 dozen of apples?

(A) Rs. 216

(B) Rs. 108

(C) Rs. 189

(D) Rs. 225

(E) Rs. 162

Ans : (A)

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is

more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?

(A) 65

(B) 52

(C) 79

(D) 63

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will

be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?

(A)Rs. 349.92

(B) Rs. 300

(C)Rs. 358.92

(D) Rs. 400

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7ems. If the length and breadth is decreased by

4cm. and 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle is same as the area of the original. What will be

the perimeter of the original rectangle?

(A)45 cms.

(B)40 cems.

(C)50 cms.

(D)55 cms.

(E)None of these

Ans : (C)

29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits

is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?

(A)28

(B) 48

(C)39

(D) 93

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the

numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original

fraction ?

(A)5/18

(B)6/13

(C)13/6

(D)7/12

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number?

(A) 70

(B) 75

(C) 69

(D) 85

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be

thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be the percentage profit?

(A) 25

(B) 15

(C) 13

(D) 17

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below?

25, 34, 52,79, 115,?

(A)160

(B) 140

(C)153

(D) 190

(E)None of these

Ans : (A)

34. ?/144= 49 /?

(A)95

(B) 76

(C)82

(D) 84

(E)None of these

Ans : (D)

35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest

numbers?

(A)158

(B) 148

(C)168

(D) 198

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on travel, 10% on clothes and the

remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved. What is Ajay’s income?

(A) Rs. 60,000

(B) Rs. 80,500

(C) Rs. 60,700

(D) Rs. 70,500

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be arranged ?

(A) 150

(B) 240

(C) 120

(D) 200

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a flower bed in the form of a

sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of the remaining part of the park?

(A)984 Square m

(B) 789 Square m

(C) 1014 Square m

(D) 1024 Square m

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs.

367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?

(A)47m

(B) 39m

(C)52m

(D)40m

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will

be fourth?

(A) 4/5

(B) 5/4

(C) 9/5

(D) 8/5

(E) 7/2

Ans : (B)

41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7 respectively. After 7 years, their ages

will be in the ratio of 11:14 respectively. What is the difference between their ages?

(A) 9 years

(B) 4 years

(C) 5 years

(D) 7 years

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete

the same work?

(A) 16 days

(B) 20 days

(C) 26 days

(D) 30 days

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?

(A) 29.2 cm

(B) 28.9 cm

(C) 30.8 cm

(D) 40.2 cm

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay with Rs. 60,000 and After

another 6 months, Ankush with Rs. 90,000 joined him. At the end of the year, they made a profit of

Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?

(A) Rs. 5,500

(B) Rs. 6,000

(C) Rs. 6,600

(D) As. 5,900

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are 42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years

respectively?

(A) 60 years

(B) 49 years

(C) 45 years

(D) 58 years

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 20 minutes. However, there is a

leakage at the bottom which empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much

time will both the taps take to fill the tank?

(A) 8 minutes

(B) 7 minutes

(C) 10 minutes

(D) 15 minutes

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?

(A) Rs. 690

(B) As. 520

(C) Rs. 517.5

(D) Rs. 499.2

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much would

each person get?

(A) Rs. 2,54,876

(B) Rs. 2,34,68

(C) Rs. 3,74,20

(D) Rs. 1,95,62

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, then what is the

probability that only one ball is white?

(A) 71/190

(B) 121/190

(C) 91/190

(D) 93/190

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what will be the price of 7 transistors

and 9 pen stands?

(A) Rs. 1,320

(B) Rs. 1,500

(C) Rs. 1,150

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

General Awareness Questions

 

Sample Question Paper

 

1. A national policy to provide rural credit was launched by the Govt. of India in general and by RBI and NABARD in particular. Which of the following cannot be considered as one of the objectives of this National Policy ?

I. To ensure timely and increased flow of credit to the rural sector.

II. To make available credit facilities to every region of the country so that there are no regional imbalances.

III. To establish a well organized network of informal/non institutional credit system in the country.

(A) Only I

(B) Both I and II

(C) Only III

(D) Both I and III

(E) All I, II and III

Ans : (C)

 

2. Under Bharat Nirman Programme of the Govt. of India action is proposed in various areas. Which of the following is not one of these areas ?

(A) Irrigation

(B) Rural Roads

(C) Rural Housing

(D) Rural Water Supply

(E) Rural Employment

Ans : (E)

3. Which of the following is the name of the legislation, which provides employment to the poors in remote areas of the country ?

(A) NREGA

(B) POTA

(C) FEMA

(D) COFEPOSA

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. The Reserve Bank of India issues coins and notes of various denominations. At present RBI does not issue coins of which of the following denominations ?

(A) 10 paise

(B) 25 paise

(C) 50 paise

(D) 100 Rupee

(E) 500 Rupee

Ans : (A)

5. Many a times we come across a term ‘Know Your Customer’ in area of banking transactions. Which of the following is the main purpose of issuing Know Your Customer guidelines by the RBI ?

(A) To provide better customer service

(B) To keep a check on money laundering

(C) To bring more and more people in the Income Tax net

(D) To make high value transactions faster

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following is not correct about the various targets set for 11th Five Year Plan ? (Whole plan period 2007-12).

(A) Farm sector growth to be increased to 8%

(B) GDP growth rate to be increased to 10%

(C) Create 7 Crore new jobs

(D) Literacy rate is to be increased to 80%

(E) Reduction in unemployment amongst the educated youth

Ans : (A)

7. Many a times we come across a term read as ‘GM’ in reference to certain crops. What is the full form of the term ‘GM’ ?

(A) Geographically Moderated

(B) Genetically Modified

(C) Globally Marketed

(D) Grown after Modifications

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

8. Many a times we see a term in newspapers ‘IPO’. What is the full form of the same ?

(A) Indian Public Offer

(B) Institutional Purchase Offer

(C) Industrial Purchase Order

(D) Indian Purchase Offer

(E) Initial Public Offer

Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following is not the part of the Charter of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) ?

I. NRHM has to pay special attention to 18 States, which have weak Public Health Indicators.

II. Mission provides for appointment of Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) in each one of four

metros so that these metros become free from Polio, Malaria, and HIV infections by 2010 ?

III. It aims at effective integration of Private Sector in health sector so that government burden can be

reduced to the level of mere policy maker.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C) Both II and III

(D) Only III

(E) Both I and III

Ans : (C)

10. Who amongst the following had said ‘small aim is crime’ ?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(C) Smt. Indira Gandhi

(D) Dr. A. P. J. Kalam

(E) Dr. Manmohan Singh

Ans : (D)

11. The rate on which banks lend to RBI is known as—

(A) CRR

(B) PLR

(C) Bank Rate

(D) REPO Rate

(E) SLR

Ans : (A)

12. Which of the following name is not associated with the insurance business in India ?

(A) Bajaj Allianz

(B) LIC

(C) GIC

(D) Tata AIG

(E) GE Money

Ans : (E)

13. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of sports ?

(A) Kalidas Samman

(B) Dhyanchand Award

(C) Shram Vir Award

(D) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

14. Which of the following does not represent the name of a bank working in India ?

(A) YES

(B) HDFC

(C) TATA

(D) Kotak Mahindra

(E) Axis

Ans : (C)

15. Who amongst the following addresses the nation on the Independence Day from the ramparts of

the Red Fort, Delhi ?

(A) President of India

(B) UPA Chair person

(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(D) Prime Minister of India

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

16. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by

a few basis points. What is basis point ?

(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point

(B) One hundredth of 1%

(C) One hundredth of 10%

(D) Ten per cent of 1000

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human

Rights Commission of a country ?

(A) Racial Discrimination

(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War

(C) Human Trafficking

(D) Child Abuse

(E) Climate Migration

Ans : (E)

18. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read

‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their

publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?

(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil

was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.

(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile

neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors

with more respect.

(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1, 2 and 3

(E) Only 1 and 2

Ans : (A)

19. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna

Lata Mangeshkar ?

(A) Germany

(B) Norway

(C) Japan

(D) U.K.

(E) France

Ans : (E)

20. Expand the term NREGA—

(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency

(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency

(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

21. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s)

is/are made in this bill ? It has proposed -

(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double

(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls

(C) Ensuring speedy disposal of electoral disputes

(D) Only (A) and (B)

(E) All (A), (B) and (C)

Ans : (D)

22. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is

commonly known as—

(A) Commodities Exchange

(B) Capital Market

(C) Bull Market

(D) Bullion Market

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

23. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?

(A) UAE

(B) USA

(C) Russia

(D) China

(E) Bangladesh

Ans : (A)

24. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of

‘ecourts’ ?

(A) Delhi

(B) A.P.

(C) Chennai

(D) Kolkata

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

25. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in

Industrial Production Index ?

(A) Crude Oil

(B) Petro Refinery Products

(C) Electricity

(D) Coal

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

26. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in

the current fiscal ?

(A) Mining

(B) Manufacturing

(C) Electricity, gas and water supply

(D) Banking and Finance

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

27. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost

half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the

following organizations ?

(A) World Bank

(B) Asian Development Bank

(C) International Monetary Fund

(D) International Gold Council

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

28. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following

cities recently ?

(A) Geneva

(B) Washington

(C) Paris

(D) Port of Spain

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

29. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?

(A) Trinidad

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) Jamaica

(E) U.K.

Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in

the country ?

(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents

(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the

services.

(C) To ask the banks to open at least 50 new accounts daily in non serviced areas.

(D) Only (A) and (B)

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

31. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India.

These funds will be made available in the form of—

(A) Soft Loan

(B) Term Loan

(C) Emergency aid

(D) Grants

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

32. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension

System (NPS) ?

(A) 18–50

(B) 21–55

(C) 25–55

(D) 18–60

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

33. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima

Yojana’ (RSBY) ?

(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households

(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households

(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural household

(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

34. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to

Corporate Governance ?

(A) SEBI

(B) RBI

(C) CII

(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

35. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the

following purposes ?

(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs

(B) Modernisation of PSEs

(C) Opening of new PSEs

(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

36. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?

(A) 3.5%

(B) 4.0%

(C) 5.5%

(D) 5.0%

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

37. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?

(A) ONGC

(B) OIL

(C) Cairn India

(D) RIL

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

38. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its

Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?

(A) M.P.

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) A.P.

(D) Karnataka

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

39. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the

line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Assam

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Rajasthan

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

40. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?

(A) Union Govt. only

(B) State Govt. only

(C) Union Territory Govt. only

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

41. As per estimates given by the RBI the Economic Growth during the year 2010-11 will be at which of

the following levels ?

(A) 6.5%

(B) 7%

(C) 7.5%

(D) 8%

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

42. Which of the following is/are correct about the RBI’s credit policy announced in April 2010 ?

I. Repo rate raised by 25 bps.

II. A new reporting platform was introduced for secondary market transactions in Certificate of

Deposits (CDs) and Commercial Papers (CPs).

III. Core Investment Companies (CICs) having an asset size of Rs. 100 crore are required to register also

with the RBI.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C) Only III

(D) All I, II and III

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

43. As per the announcement made by the RBI some Stock Exchanges in India are allowed to

introduce Plain Vanilla Currency Options. The term Plain Vanilla Currency Options is associated with

which of the following activities / operations ?

(A) Dollar–Rupee Exchange Rate

(B) Floating of Commercial Papers

(C) Launch of new mutual funds

(D) Deciding the opening price of a share on a particular business day

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following is not a term related to banking/finance operations ?

(A) Provision Coverage Ratio

(B) Securitization

(C) Consolidation

(D) Commodification

(E) Derivatives

Ans : (C)

45. The process of “Artificial Application of Water to the soil usually for assisting in growing crops”, is

technically known as—

(A) water harvesting

(B) irrigation

(C) water recharging

(D) percolation

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

46. As per the news published in major newspapers / journals henceforth the Credit Card holders will

be able to access their credit card information though automated interactive voice response system

over the phone instead of speaking to the staff. This decision of the banks/credit card companies will

provide—

I. an additional hurdle to the customers as people feel comfortable in talking to the staff instead of

talking to a machine.

II. an additional security to the customers as this does not allow any staff to handle any transaction

directly.

III. some comfort to the banks as they will be able to reduce their staff strength.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C) Only III

(D) All I, II and III

(E) Only I and III

Ans : (B)

47. The 34th National Game which were postponed several times are scheduled to be held in which of

the following states ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Kerala

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Uttar Pradesh

(E) Jharkhand

Ans : (E)

48. Waste Water generates which of the following gases which is more powerful and dangerous than

CO2 ?

(A) Nitrogen

(B) Sulphur di-oxide

(C) Hydrogen

(D) Methane

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

49. Which of the following days was observed as World Water Day 2010 ?

(A) 20th June

(B) 22nd July

(C) 22nd March

(D) 20th May

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

50. Late Vinda Karandikar who died a few months back was a famous—

(A) Author

(B) Cine-Actor

(C) Sportsman

(D) Classical Singer

(E) Social Worker

Ans : (A)