Archive for Written Test Syllabus

Reasoning Questions

January 18, 2012 IBPS, IT Officer, Notification, Written Test Syllabus One comment

IBPS Specialist Officer Reasoning Model Question Paper

 

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

(A) BDF

(B) VXZ

(C) FIK

(D) MOQ

(E) LNP

Ans : (C)

 

2. Among A. B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D

scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who

among them scored least marks among them?

(A) A

(B) C

(C) B

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

3. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many

students arc there between M and H?

(A) 22

(B) 23

(C) 24

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

4. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th

July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but

before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday?

(A) 10th

(B) 11th

(C) 10th or 11th

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

5. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five

numbers?

254 319 963 842 697

(A) 5

(B) 1

(C) 6

(D) 4

(E) 9

Ans : (D)

 

6. What should come next in the following number series?

9898798769876598765498765

(A) 3

(B) 4

(C) 2

(D) 1

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

(A) Copper

(B) Iron

(C) Aluminium

(D) Zinc

(E) Steel

Ans : (E)

 

8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da naja’ means ‘you may

come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code

language?

(A) da

(B) ja

(C) na

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

9. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED

written in that code?

(A) PSHBMCDRH

(B) BHSPMCDRH

(C) BHSPOCDRH

(D) BHSPNHRDC

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

10. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away

from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in

descending order?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (C)

 

11. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to

(A) JM

(B) lL

(C) JL

(D) 1K

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

12. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE

written in that code?

(A) 5427

(B) 5247

(C) 5847

(D) 5237

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

13. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each

letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (B)

 

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

(A) 19

(B) 17

(C) 23

(D) 29

(E) 27

Ans : (E)

 

15. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as

many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (D)

 

 

Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions

numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be

at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically

follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers

(A) If only conclusion I follows.

(B) If only conclusion II follows.

(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements:

All pots are rings.

All bangles are rings.

All rings arc paints.

Conclusions:

I. Some paints are pots.

II. Some bangles are paints.

Ans : (A)

 

17. Statements:

All goats are (lowers.

No flower is branch.

Some branches arc roots.

Conclusions:

I. Some roots are goats.

II. No root is goat.

Ans : (C)

 

 

 

18. Statements:

Some trees arc boxes.

All boxes are bricks.

All bricks are dogs.

Conclusions:

I. Some dogs are trees.

II. Some bricks arc trees.

Ans : (E)

 

19. Statements:

All tables arc windows.

All windows are rooms.

All rooms arc buses.

Conclusions:

I. Some buses arc tables.

II. Some rooms are tables.

Ans : (E)

 

20. Statements:

Some forests arc huts.

Some huts are walls.

Some walls are nets.

Conclusions:

I. Some nets arc forests.

II. Some nets are huts.

Ans : (D)

 

21. Statements:

All chair are pens.

Some pens are knives.

All knives are rats.

Conclusions:

I. Some rats are chairs.

II. Some rats are pens.

Ans : (B)

 

22. Statements:

Some desks arc tents.

Some tents are rivers.

All rivers are ponds.

Conclusions:

I. Some ponds arc tents.

II. Some ponds are desks.

Ans : (A)

 

Directions—(Q.23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions

given below—

B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T 1 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y

 

23. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(A) l@4

(B) ©TH

(C) WP6

(D) #73

(E) 921

Ans : (E)

 

24. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either

immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) Four

Ans : (D)

 

25. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be

the eleventh from the right end?

(A) U

(B) T

(C) F

(D) H

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (B)

 

27. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (A)

 

28. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (C)

 

29. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the

above arrangement?

(A) %

(B) W

(C) $

(D) J

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

 

Directions (Q.30—36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by

four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the

combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter

coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter

combinations correctly represents the group of digits! symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as

the answer.

Digit/Symbol:

4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d

Letter Code:

P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L

Conditions:

(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be

interchanged.

(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be

coded as the code for the digit.

(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.

(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.

30. 46*389

(A) PNBIJT

(B) XNBIJX

(C) TNBlip

(D) PNBIJP

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

31. 931%©d

(A) TIQMHL

(B) LIQMHT

(C) LIQMHL

(D) TIQMHT

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

32. 7#$%35

(A) GERMIU

(B) UERMIG

(C) GERMIG

(D) XERMIX

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

 

33. 8732@9

(A) TGIAFJ

(B) YGIAFY

(C) JGIAFT

(D) XGIAFX

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

 

34. 2*#836

(A) YBEJIY

(B) ABEJIN

(C) NBEJIA

(D) XBEJLX

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

 

35. $1896©

(A) RQJTNH

(B) HQJTNR

(C) RQJTNR

(D) YQJTNY

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

36. 4%@93*

(A) PMFTIB

(B) PMFTIP

(C) BMFTIB

(D) XMFTIX

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

 

 

Directions—(Q.37—43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are used with

the following meanings illustrated.

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.

‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the

two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers:

(A) If only conclusion I is true.

(B) If only conclusion II is true.

(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.

 

37. Statements: V % B, B $ D, D © E

Conclusions:

I. E d B

II. D @ V

Ans : (B)

 

38. Statements: H $ N, N % R, R @ J

Conclusions:

I. R @ H

II. J %H

Ans : (A)

 

39. Statements: F d T, T $ M, M © R

Conclusions:

I. R $ F

II. M © F

Ans : (B)

 

40. Statements: W © D, D $ B, B @ H

Conclusions:

I. H % D

II.W @ B

Ans : (D)

 

41. Statements: F @ R, R © V, V $ T

Conclusions:

I. V % F

II. F @ T

Ans : (A)

 

42. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W

Conclusions:

I. W % T

II. H © N

Ans : (E)

 

43. Statements: M @ J, J © R, R d K

Conclusions:

I. K d I

II. K % J

Ans : (C)

 

 

Directions—(Q.44—49) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—

M, N, P. R. T, W, F and H arc sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of

M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is

second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.

44. Who is fourth to the right of R?

(A) T

(B) R

(C) W

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

 

45. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the third

person?

(A) NHM

(B) PHN

(C) TRP

(D) TWF

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

 

46. Who is second to the right of F?

(A) M

(B) R

(C) T

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

 

Ans : (C)

 

47. Who is third to the right of H?

(A) T

(B) W

(C) R

(D) F

(E) Data inadequate

Ans : (D)

 

48. Who is to the immediate left of R?

(A) P

(B) H

(C) W

(D) T

(E) Data inadequate

Ans : (D)

 

49. Who is to the immediate right of H?

(A) R

(B) F

(C) M

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

 

50. Who is to the immediate right of P?

(A) H

(B) F

(C) R

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

Quantitative Aptitude Questions

January 18, 2012 IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus No comments

IBPS Specialist Officer Quantitative Aptitude Model

Question Paper

1. 434 x 645=?

(A) 27840

(B) 297930

(C) 279903

(D) 279930

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

2. 7 x ? =29.05

(A) 4.05

(B) 4.15

(C) 3.95

(D) 4.28

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

3. 725 / 25 – 13 = ?

(A) 16

(B) 29

(C) 12

(D) 18

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?

(A) 314

(B) 313

(C) 312

(D) 311

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

5. 559 + 995 = ? x 16

(A) 92.05

(B) 95.25

(C) 93.15

(D) 94.35

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. ((337 +146) x 8)=?

(A) 3884

(B) 1515

(C) 3864

(D) 1505

(E) 3846

Ans : (C)

7. 806 / 26 =?

(A) 30

(B) 32

(C) 34

(D) 36

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

8. 7 3/4 + 5 1/4 + 8 1/4 = ?

(A) 20 1/4

(B) 21 1/2

(C) 21 3/4

(D) 21 3/4

(E) 20 3/4

Ans : (B)

9. 4758-2782-1430=?

(A) 356

(B) 396

(C) 486

(D) 546

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

10. ((8)2 + 164 + 4) / 14 = ?

(A) 25

(B) 64

(C) 8

(D) 7.5

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. 2/5 + 10/13 + 7/13 = ?

(A) 2 23/65

(B) 1 46/65

(C) 2 10/13

(D) 46/65

(E) 1 10/13

Ans : (B)

12. 248 of 7/8 + 110 of 20% = ?

(A) 192

(B) 202

(C) 212

(D) 239

(E) 242

Ans : (D)

13. 576 ÷ ? x 114 = 8208

(A) 8

(B) 7

(C) 6

(D) 9

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

14. 280% of 460 =?

(A) 1188

(B) 1284

(C) 1288

(D) 1280

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

15. 484 of 3/4 + 366 of 5/6 = ?

(A) 663

(B) 844

(C) 668

(D) 848

(E) 666

Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?

(A) 118 x 13+209 x 42

(B) 174 x 10+222 x 19

(C) 173 x 12+221 x 24

(D) 169 x 16+167 x 50

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

17. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?

(A) Rs. 3.377

(B) Rs. 4.473

(C) Rs. 4.377

(D) Rs. 4.743

(E) Rs. 4.347

Ans : (D)

18. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance

covered by the bus?

(A) 343 km

(B) 283 km

(C) 353 km

(D) 245 km

(E) 340 km

Ans : (A)

19. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?

(A) 20

(B) 21

(C) 22

(D) 23

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

20. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three?

(A) 12

(B) 15

(C) 13

(D) 16

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

21. 1/4th of 2/5th of a number is 82. What is the number?

(A) 410

(B) 820

(C) 420

(D) 220

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

22. Find the average of the following set of scores:

118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229

(A) 148

(B) 152

(C) 156

(D) 160

(E) 175

Ans : (E)

23. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?

(A) 43

(B) 48

(C) 55

(D) 53

(E) 62

Ans : (D)

24. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?

(A) 59

(B) 58

(C) 57

(D) 56

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

25. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of

bananas and 3 dozen of apples?

(A) Rs. 216

(B) Rs. 108

(C) Rs. 189

(D) Rs. 225

(E) Rs. 162

Ans : (A)

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is

more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?

(A) 65

(B) 52

(C) 79

(D) 63

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will

be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?

(A)Rs. 349.92

(B) Rs. 300

(C)Rs. 358.92

(D) Rs. 400

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7ems. If the length and breadth is decreased by

4cm. and 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle is same as the area of the original. What will be

the perimeter of the original rectangle?

(A)45 cms.

(B)40 cems.

(C)50 cms.

(D)55 cms.

(E)None of these

Ans : (C)

29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits

is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?

(A)28

(B) 48

(C)39

(D) 93

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the

numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original

fraction ?

(A)5/18

(B)6/13

(C)13/6

(D)7/12

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number?

(A) 70

(B) 75

(C) 69

(D) 85

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be

thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be the percentage profit?

(A) 25

(B) 15

(C) 13

(D) 17

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below?

25, 34, 52,79, 115,?

(A)160

(B) 140

(C)153

(D) 190

(E)None of these

Ans : (A)

34. ?/144= 49 /?

(A)95

(B) 76

(C)82

(D) 84

(E)None of these

Ans : (D)

35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest

numbers?

(A)158

(B) 148

(C)168

(D) 198

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on travel, 10% on clothes and the

remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved. What is Ajay’s income?

(A) Rs. 60,000

(B) Rs. 80,500

(C) Rs. 60,700

(D) Rs. 70,500

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be arranged ?

(A) 150

(B) 240

(C) 120

(D) 200

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a flower bed in the form of a

sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of the remaining part of the park?

(A)984 Square m

(B) 789 Square m

(C) 1014 Square m

(D) 1024 Square m

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs.

367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?

(A)47m

(B) 39m

(C)52m

(D)40m

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will

be fourth?

(A) 4/5

(B) 5/4

(C) 9/5

(D) 8/5

(E) 7/2

Ans : (B)

41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7 respectively. After 7 years, their ages

will be in the ratio of 11:14 respectively. What is the difference between their ages?

(A) 9 years

(B) 4 years

(C) 5 years

(D) 7 years

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete

the same work?

(A) 16 days

(B) 20 days

(C) 26 days

(D) 30 days

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?

(A) 29.2 cm

(B) 28.9 cm

(C) 30.8 cm

(D) 40.2 cm

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay with Rs. 60,000 and After

another 6 months, Ankush with Rs. 90,000 joined him. At the end of the year, they made a profit of

Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?

(A) Rs. 5,500

(B) Rs. 6,000

(C) Rs. 6,600

(D) As. 5,900

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are 42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years

respectively?

(A) 60 years

(B) 49 years

(C) 45 years

(D) 58 years

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 20 minutes. However, there is a

leakage at the bottom which empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much

time will both the taps take to fill the tank?

(A) 8 minutes

(B) 7 minutes

(C) 10 minutes

(D) 15 minutes

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?

(A) Rs. 690

(B) As. 520

(C) Rs. 517.5

(D) Rs. 499.2

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much would

each person get?

(A) Rs. 2,54,876

(B) Rs. 2,34,68

(C) Rs. 3,74,20

(D) Rs. 1,95,62

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, then what is the

probability that only one ball is white?

(A) 71/190

(B) 121/190

(C) 91/190

(D) 93/190

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what will be the price of 7 transistors

and 9 pen stands?

(A) Rs. 1,320

(B) Rs. 1,500

(C) Rs. 1,150

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

General Awareness Questions

January 16, 2012 IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus No comments

 

Sample Question Paper

 

1. A national policy to provide rural credit was launched by the Govt. of India in general and by RBI and NABARD in particular. Which of the following cannot be considered as one of the objectives of this National Policy ?

I. To ensure timely and increased flow of credit to the rural sector.

II. To make available credit facilities to every region of the country so that there are no regional imbalances.

III. To establish a well organized network of informal/non institutional credit system in the country.

(A) Only I

(B) Both I and II

(C) Only III

(D) Both I and III

(E) All I, II and III

Ans : (C)

 

2. Under Bharat Nirman Programme of the Govt. of India action is proposed in various areas. Which of the following is not one of these areas ?

(A) Irrigation

(B) Rural Roads

(C) Rural Housing

(D) Rural Water Supply

(E) Rural Employment

Ans : (E)

3. Which of the following is the name of the legislation, which provides employment to the poors in remote areas of the country ?

(A) NREGA

(B) POTA

(C) FEMA

(D) COFEPOSA

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. The Reserve Bank of India issues coins and notes of various denominations. At present RBI does not issue coins of which of the following denominations ?

(A) 10 paise

(B) 25 paise

(C) 50 paise

(D) 100 Rupee

(E) 500 Rupee

Ans : (A)

5. Many a times we come across a term ‘Know Your Customer’ in area of banking transactions. Which of the following is the main purpose of issuing Know Your Customer guidelines by the RBI ?

(A) To provide better customer service

(B) To keep a check on money laundering

(C) To bring more and more people in the Income Tax net

(D) To make high value transactions faster

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following is not correct about the various targets set for 11th Five Year Plan ? (Whole plan period 2007-12).

(A) Farm sector growth to be increased to 8%

(B) GDP growth rate to be increased to 10%

(C) Create 7 Crore new jobs

(D) Literacy rate is to be increased to 80%

(E) Reduction in unemployment amongst the educated youth

Ans : (A)

7. Many a times we come across a term read as ‘GM’ in reference to certain crops. What is the full form of the term ‘GM’ ?

(A) Geographically Moderated

(B) Genetically Modified

(C) Globally Marketed

(D) Grown after Modifications

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

8. Many a times we see a term in newspapers ‘IPO’. What is the full form of the same ?

(A) Indian Public Offer

(B) Institutional Purchase Offer

(C) Industrial Purchase Order

(D) Indian Purchase Offer

(E) Initial Public Offer

Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following is not the part of the Charter of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) ?

I. NRHM has to pay special attention to 18 States, which have weak Public Health Indicators.

II. Mission provides for appointment of Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) in each one of four

metros so that these metros become free from Polio, Malaria, and HIV infections by 2010 ?

III. It aims at effective integration of Private Sector in health sector so that government burden can be

reduced to the level of mere policy maker.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C) Both II and III

(D) Only III

(E) Both I and III

Ans : (C)

10. Who amongst the following had said ‘small aim is crime’ ?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(C) Smt. Indira Gandhi

(D) Dr. A. P. J. Kalam

(E) Dr. Manmohan Singh

Ans : (D)

11. The rate on which banks lend to RBI is known as—

(A) CRR

(B) PLR

(C) Bank Rate

(D) REPO Rate

(E) SLR

Ans : (A)

12. Which of the following name is not associated with the insurance business in India ?

(A) Bajaj Allianz

(B) LIC

(C) GIC

(D) Tata AIG

(E) GE Money

Ans : (E)

13. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of sports ?

(A) Kalidas Samman

(B) Dhyanchand Award

(C) Shram Vir Award

(D) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

14. Which of the following does not represent the name of a bank working in India ?

(A) YES

(B) HDFC

(C) TATA

(D) Kotak Mahindra

(E) Axis

Ans : (C)

15. Who amongst the following addresses the nation on the Independence Day from the ramparts of

the Red Fort, Delhi ?

(A) President of India

(B) UPA Chair person

(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(D) Prime Minister of India

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

16. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by

a few basis points. What is basis point ?

(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point

(B) One hundredth of 1%

(C) One hundredth of 10%

(D) Ten per cent of 1000

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human

Rights Commission of a country ?

(A) Racial Discrimination

(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War

(C) Human Trafficking

(D) Child Abuse

(E) Climate Migration

Ans : (E)

18. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read

‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their

publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?

(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil

was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.

(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile

neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors

with more respect.

(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1, 2 and 3

(E) Only 1 and 2

Ans : (A)

19. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna

Lata Mangeshkar ?

(A) Germany

(B) Norway

(C) Japan

(D) U.K.

(E) France

Ans : (E)

20. Expand the term NREGA—

(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency

(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency

(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

21. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s)

is/are made in this bill ? It has proposed -

(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double

(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls

(C) Ensuring speedy disposal of electoral disputes

(D) Only (A) and (B)

(E) All (A), (B) and (C)

Ans : (D)

22. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is

commonly known as—

(A) Commodities Exchange

(B) Capital Market

(C) Bull Market

(D) Bullion Market

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

23. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?

(A) UAE

(B) USA

(C) Russia

(D) China

(E) Bangladesh

Ans : (A)

24. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of

‘ecourts’ ?

(A) Delhi

(B) A.P.

(C) Chennai

(D) Kolkata

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

25. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in

Industrial Production Index ?

(A) Crude Oil

(B) Petro Refinery Products

(C) Electricity

(D) Coal

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

26. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in

the current fiscal ?

(A) Mining

(B) Manufacturing

(C) Electricity, gas and water supply

(D) Banking and Finance

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

27. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost

half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the

following organizations ?

(A) World Bank

(B) Asian Development Bank

(C) International Monetary Fund

(D) International Gold Council

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

28. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following

cities recently ?

(A) Geneva

(B) Washington

(C) Paris

(D) Port of Spain

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

29. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?

(A) Trinidad

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) Jamaica

(E) U.K.

Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in

the country ?

(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents

(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the

services.

(C) To ask the banks to open at least 50 new accounts daily in non serviced areas.

(D) Only (A) and (B)

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

31. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India.

These funds will be made available in the form of—

(A) Soft Loan

(B) Term Loan

(C) Emergency aid

(D) Grants

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

32. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension

System (NPS) ?

(A) 18–50

(B) 21–55

(C) 25–55

(D) 18–60

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

33. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima

Yojana’ (RSBY) ?

(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households

(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households

(C) To provide both life and health insurance cover to rural household

(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

34. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to

Corporate Governance ?

(A) SEBI

(B) RBI

(C) CII

(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

35. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the

following purposes ?

(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs

(B) Modernisation of PSEs

(C) Opening of new PSEs

(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

36. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?

(A) 3.5%

(B) 4.0%

(C) 5.5%

(D) 5.0%

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

37. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?

(A) ONGC

(B) OIL

(C) Cairn India

(D) RIL

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

38. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its

Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?

(A) M.P.

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) A.P.

(D) Karnataka

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

39. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the

line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Assam

(C) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Rajasthan

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

40. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?

(A) Union Govt. only

(B) State Govt. only

(C) Union Territory Govt. only

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

41. As per estimates given by the RBI the Economic Growth during the year 2010-11 will be at which of

the following levels ?

(A) 6.5%

(B) 7%

(C) 7.5%

(D) 8%

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

42. Which of the following is/are correct about the RBI’s credit policy announced in April 2010 ?

I. Repo rate raised by 25 bps.

II. A new reporting platform was introduced for secondary market transactions in Certificate of

Deposits (CDs) and Commercial Papers (CPs).

III. Core Investment Companies (CICs) having an asset size of Rs. 100 crore are required to register also

with the RBI.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C) Only III

(D) All I, II and III

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

43. As per the announcement made by the RBI some Stock Exchanges in India are allowed to

introduce Plain Vanilla Currency Options. The term Plain Vanilla Currency Options is associated with

which of the following activities / operations ?

(A) Dollar–Rupee Exchange Rate

(B) Floating of Commercial Papers

(C) Launch of new mutual funds

(D) Deciding the opening price of a share on a particular business day

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following is not a term related to banking/finance operations ?

(A) Provision Coverage Ratio

(B) Securitization

(C) Consolidation

(D) Commodification

(E) Derivatives

Ans : (C)

45. The process of “Artificial Application of Water to the soil usually for assisting in growing crops”, is

technically known as—

(A) water harvesting

(B) irrigation

(C) water recharging

(D) percolation

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

46. As per the news published in major newspapers / journals henceforth the Credit Card holders will

be able to access their credit card information though automated interactive voice response system

over the phone instead of speaking to the staff. This decision of the banks/credit card companies will

provide—

I. an additional hurdle to the customers as people feel comfortable in talking to the staff instead of

talking to a machine.

II. an additional security to the customers as this does not allow any staff to handle any transaction

directly.

III. some comfort to the banks as they will be able to reduce their staff strength.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(C) Only III

(D) All I, II and III

(E) Only I and III

Ans : (B)

47. The 34th National Game which were postponed several times are scheduled to be held in which of

the following states ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Kerala

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) Uttar Pradesh

(E) Jharkhand

Ans : (E)

48. Waste Water generates which of the following gases which is more powerful and dangerous than

CO2 ?

(A) Nitrogen

(B) Sulphur di-oxide

(C) Hydrogen

(D) Methane

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

49. Which of the following days was observed as World Water Day 2010 ?

(A) 20th June

(B) 22nd July

(C) 22nd March

(D) 20th May

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

50. Late Vinda Karandikar who died a few months back was a famous—

(A) Author

(B) Cine-Actor

(C) Sportsman

(D) Classical Singer

(E) Social Worker

Ans : (A)

Model Questions 1

January 13, 2012 English, IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus 5 comments

 

ENGLISH

Direction (1 – 5) : In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word

Q.1)

(1) Preposterous (2) Disasterous

(3) Murderous (4) Onerous

Q.2)

(1) Severity (2) Cruelity

(3) Sincerity (4) Superiority

Q.3)

(1) Begining (2) Winning

(3) Mining (4) Running

Q.4)

(1) Complement (2) Compliment

(3) Supplement (4) Requirement

Q.5)

(1) Amelirate (2) Zealot

(3) Penetrate (4) Stain

Direction (6 – 15) : In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part as 1, 2 and 3 which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, you answer is ‘4’.

Q.6) She teaches us grammar, isn’t it?

(1) isn’t she? (2) doesn’t she?

(3) doesn’t it? (4) no improvement

Q.7) The struggle for independent is gaining movement every day.

(1) motion (2) movement

(3) momentum (4) no improvement

Q.8) She is quite without affection and has no false pride.

(1) admiration (2) affliction

(3) affectation (4) no improvement

Q.9) I complimented Raju for his promotion.

(1) with (2) on

(3) about (4) no improvement

Q.10) The food tastes deliciously.

(1) delicacy (2) delicious

(3) badly (4) no improvement

Q.11) I have seen much of the plays of Shakespeare acted.

(1) a few (2) many

(3) most (4) no improvement

Q.12) I have bought this house in 1970 for Rs. Two lakhs.

(1) had bought (2) bought

(3) have been bought (4) no improvement

Q.13) To child died from jaundice.

(1) with (2) of

(3) by (4) no improvement

Q.14) I will phone you after I shall arrive.

(1) after I shall have arrived

(2) after I arrive

(3) after I arrived

(4) no improvement

Q.15) It’s high time you come to a decision.

(1) came (2) had come

(3) have come (4) no improvement

Direction (16 – 20) : In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive / Active Voice.

Q.16) You surprise me.

(1) I am to be surprised (2) You are surprised

(3) I am surprised (4) Me is surprised

Q.17) The boys killed the snake with a stick.

(1) The snake was killed by the boys with a stick.

(2) A stick was killed by the boys with a snake.

(3) A snake with a stick was killed by the boys.

(4) A snake is killed by the boys with a stick.

Q.18) Let me do this.

(1) Let us do this. (2) This be done by me.

(3) Let this be done by me. (4) Let do this.

Q.19) The tiger caught a fox.

(1) A fox has been caught by the tiger.

(2) A fox was caught by the tiger.

(3) A fox is caught by the tiger.

(4) A fox had been caught by the tiger.

Q.20) Someone has lit the fire.

(1) The fire was lit by someone.

(2) You are requested to light the fire by someone.

(3) The firs has been lit by someone.

(4) The fire had been lit by someone.

Direction (21 – 25) : In the following passage, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6.

The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer .

Q.21) 1. Once a week Deesa led Moti Guj, the elephant, down to the river.

P. After inspection the two would stand up.

Q. Then Deesa looked at his feet and examined his whole body for sores.

R. The animal knew it was time to return.

S. The elephant lay down on his side, while Deesa rubbed him with a coir scrubber.

6. Both the elephant and the trainer would return home.

(1) SQPR (2) QSRP

(3) QPRS (4) RQSP

Q.22) 1. Anna had longed to see her son.

P. “He will arrive at the station at 10 O’clock, she said to herself.

Q. She prepared herself for it.

R. She looked at the clock.

S. There were only five minutes left.

6. She rushed out of her house and hailed a taxi to reach the station in time.

(1) QPRS (2) SPRQ

(3) PRQS (4) QSRP

Q.23) 1. Mr. Ramaswamy is a very strict man.

P. He earns nearly three thousand rupees a month.

Q. He also believes that it is foolish to waste one’s time or money.

R. He is not a poor man.

S. He believes that life means work only.

6. But he wants his children to lead a simple life.

(1) PSQR (2) SQRP

(3) RQPS (4) SRQP

Q.24) 1. It will be better.

P. to a few than enrol.

Q. to provide quality education.

R. them out as graduates.

S. en masse and churn.

6. after perfunctory teaching.

(1) QRSP (2) RSPQ

(3) QPSR (4) SRQP

Q.25) 1. ‘I was born here in the old city’ the girl told us.

P. her answer suggested that her family has roots.

Q. when we inquired.

R. as opposed to the modern towns that consist mostly of hotels.

S. and belongs to the traditional part where the temple are.

6. Some day people here are more ethnically pure.

(1) QPSR (2) SRPQ

(3) PSRQ (4) SRQP

ANSWERS

1. (2)

2. (2)

3. (1)

4. (4)

5. (1)

6. (2)

7. (3)

8. (3)

9. (2)

10. (4)

11. (2)

12. (2)

13. (2)

14. (2)

15. (1)

16. (3)

17. (1)

18. (3)

19. (2)

20. (3)

21. (1)

22. (1)

23. (2)

24. (3)

25. (1)

English Questions

January 13, 2012 English, IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus No comments

Please refer to these pages for Model English Questions

 

and download the previous english questions paper

 

 

 

 

Model Questions 3

January 13, 2012 English, IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus No comments

ENGLISH Questions

Direction (1 – 5) : In the following passage, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6.

The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer

 

Q.1) 1. Making ourselves

P. our language

Q. part of growing into

R. masters of

S. is an important

6. full manhood or womanhood

(1) PSRQ (2) SQPR

(3) RPSQ (4) PRSQ

Q.2) 1. The very first battle they fought

P. and they had to fall back

Q. cross the border

R. was lost

S. letting the enemy

6. an enter the country

(1) RQSP (2) RPSQ

(3) QRPS (4) QPRS

Q.3) 1. A nation

P. the material assets it possesses

Q. is not made by

R. and collective determination

S. but by the will

6. of the people

(1) PQRS (2) QPSR

(3) RSPQ (4) SRPQ

Q.4) 1. When the Governor

P. the bell had rung

Q. justice should be immediately

R. he ordered that

S. found out why

6. done to the horse

(1) RSPQ (2) PQSR

(3) SPRQ (4) SQRP

Q.5) 1. When you ponder over

P. that the only hope

Q. you will realize

R. of world peace lies

S. the question deeply

6. in the United Nations

(1) QRSP (2) SPQR

(3) SQPR (4) RSPQ

Direction (6 – 15) : In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

The language problem is not solved by deciding the medium of instruction in the education institutions. The problem is 81. between State Governments still 82. At present, each State Government is 83 the process of 84 the 85 language as the medium for 86 purposes. Then the need for a stable language for 87 communication 88. Moreover, the Central Government shall 89 adopt a particular language for 90 own official work.

Q.6)

(1) communication (2) information

(3) intimation (4) decision

Q.7)

(1) stays (2) remains

(3) resides (4) rests

Q.8)

(1) into (2) through

(3) with (4) in

Q.9)

(1) adapting (2) imposing

(3) thrusting (4) adopting

Q.10)

(1) local (2) mother

(3) regional (4) foreign

Q.11)

(1) governmental (2) officious

(3) administrative (4) religious

Q.12)

(1) inter-state (2) regional

(3) international (4) intra-state

Q.13)

(1) come up (2) rises

(3) crops up (4) persists

Q.14)

(1) having to (2) have to

(3) had been (4) have been

Q.15)

(1) its (2) their

(3) our (4) his

Direction (16 – 25) : In the following passage, you have two brief passage with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives

Passage – I

“The Law is an ass’, declared Mr. Bumble in “Oliver Twist”, and it often seems he was right. For punishment does not always fit the crime and it rarely happens that a prison term reforms a criminal.” Consider the following tow cases. The first one had happened in a village in Madural District. One Gopal One Gopal Yadhav, a hard-core criminal undergoing life sentence in the Madural Prison came out on ball for two days to perform the last rites of his mother. But he was rearrested on the same evening on the charges of murdering his neighbour’s son the settle old scores. The second case too came to Madural Court recently. Deserted by her husband a drunkard, his grief-stricken wife mixed rate poison in the food and gave it to her four children aged between 1 ½ and 9 years. Before she could swallow the same food she was unable to bear the pritiable sight of her children writhing in pain. She rushed them to hospital where she disclosed everything. She was able to save the lives of the first three children, but the law of the country awarded her tow years imprisonment (later commuted to one year) on the charges of plotting to kill her children. Would you say women like here are a danger to the society? Would you call them criminal? It is high time that we found other ways of registering our disapproval of wrong doing. To imprison the bad is expedient – when they are dangerous. To imprison the mad and the merely sad, as we do, is not only unnecessary, it is uncivilized.

Q.16) The writer says ‘The Law is an ass’ because

(1) it is as patient as an ass

(2) it does not punish the criminals severely

(3) punishments do not help to reform criminals

(4) criminals can escape punishment.

Q.17) Gopal Yadhav came out on ball

(1) in order to murder his enemy

(2) to cremate his mother

(3) so that he could be rearrested

(4) to see his four children undergoing treatment in the hospital

Q.18) The mother in the second case cannot be called a criminal because she

(1) rushed her children to the hospital

(2) mixed an ineffective poison in the food

(3) was able to save three out of four children

(4) was deserted by her husband.

Q.19) The writer argues that punishments for people like the woman in the second case are not necessary

because they

(1) don’t commit crimes frequently

(2) are less dangerous than other criminals

(3) represent poor society

(4) should not be clubbed with other criminals

Q.20) The main difference between the two case is

(1) the first is about a man and the other is about a woman

(2) the woman regrets what she has done, but not the man

(3) the man is a lifer but the woman is not

(4) the man and the woman belong to different communities

Passage – II

The United Nations Fourth World Women’s Conference had a colourful start at Beijing on September 4th. This is the century’s most crucial conference which aimed at changing the status quo of women’s lives characterized by inequality. In a preliminary session, Ms. Aung Suu Kyi, the Nobel Peace Prize winner said that expanding women’s power will bring greater peace and tolerance to the world. “It is not the prerogative of men alone to bring light to this orld. Women with their capacity for compassion and self-sacrifice, with their courage and perseverance have done much to dissipate the darkness of intolerance and hate”, said Ms. Suu Kyi. In the afternoon session Ms. Ayako Yamaguchi, a Japanese delegate, launched a  petition against beauty pageants. “What right do men have to evaluate women in a few  minutes? All women are beautiful. Beauty is something different for everyone”, Ms Ayako  Yamaguchi said.

“Beauty contests are used as trade and exploitation. The training is very vigorous but it is the organizers, not the women, who get the full benefit”, said Ms Ranjana Bhargava. “After the competition, the women become trapped and the abuse and the bad things begin. The women are tainted no one else will accept them”.

Q.21) The Women’s World Conference was very important because

(1) Ms Aung Suu Kyi has just been awarded the prestigious Nobel Peace Prize

(2) Ms Aung Suu Kyi was taking part in the Conference

(3) its main purpose was to change inequalities between men and women

(4) it was to protest against beauty contests

Q.22) Which of the following arguments of Ms Aung Suu Kyi is not true?

(1) Women also can bring greater peace to the world.

(2) Men cannot claim they have done more for peace.

(3) Women have the capacity for compassion and sacrifice.

(4) Men have done nothing to dissipate ignorance.

Q.23) The main emphasis in Ms. Ayako Yamaguchi’s argument is

(1) men have no right to judge women.

(2) men should be given more time to evaluate women.

(3) all women are beautiful in a way.

(4) beauty contests are not necessary.

Q.24) “Beauty is something different for everyone”.

This statement means

(1) beauty is certainly different from ugliness.

(2) beautiful women do not mingle with other women.

(3) beauty cannot be defined adequately.

(4) each woman is beautiful.

Q.25) “Colourful start” in the first sentence refers to

(1) participants who were all beautiful

(2) a lot of excitement and cheerfulness in the conference hall

(3) absence of black coloured girls

(4) flags of various colours outside the conference hall

ANSWERS

1. (3)

2. (2)

3. (2)

4. (3)

5. (3)

6. (1)

7. (2)

8. (4)

9. (4)

10. (3)

11. (3)

12. (1)

13. (1)

14. (2)

15. (1)

16. (3)

17. (2)

18. (1)

19. (2)

20. (2)

21. (3)

22. (4)

23. (1)

24. (3)

25. (2)

Professional knowledge Questions

January 12, 2012 IBPS, IT Officer, Professional Knowledge, Written Test Syllabus 12 comments

 

IBPS Professional Knowledge Questions – set 2

1.    _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ translates and executes program at run time line by line
1) Compiler    2) Interpreter    3) Linker    4) Loader    5) None

2. _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _  is an OOP principle
1) Structured programming    2) Procedural programming    3) Inheritance
4) Linking    5) None

3. COBOL is widely used in  _ _ _ _ _ _ _ applications
1) Commercial    2) Scientific        3) Space    4) Mathematical
5) None

4. RAM stands for
1) Random origin money    2) Random only memory    3) Read only memory
4) Random access memory    5) None

5. 1 Byte = ?
1) 8 bits    2) 4 bits    3) 2 bits    4) 9 bits    5) None

6. SMPS stands for
1) Switched mode power supply    2) Start mode power supply
3) Store mode power supply        4) Single mode power supply
5) None

7. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as
1) Modem    2) Multiplexer    3) Modulator    4) Demodulator    5) None

8. VDU is also called
1) Screen    2) Monitor    3) Both 1 & 2    4) printer    5) None

9. BIOS stands for
1) Basic Input Output system        2) Binary Input output system
3) Basic Input Off system        4) all the above
5) None

10. Father of ‘C’ programming language
1) Dennis Ritchie    2) Prof Jhon Kemeny    3) Thomas Kurtz    4) Bill Gates
5) None

11. The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has
1) 16 address lines    2) 16 Buses    3) 16 Data lines    4) 16 routes    5) None

12. Data going into the computer is called
1) Output    2) algorithm    3) Input    4) Calculations    5) flow chart

13. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?
1) LAN    2) DSL        3) RAM    4) USB    5) CPU

14. Microsoft Office is
1) Shareware        2)Public domain software    3) Open-sourse software
4) A vertical market application    5) An application suite

15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer
1) None    2) One        3) Two
4) it depends on the amount of memory on the computer
5) It depends on the speed of the computer’s processor

16. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called
1) Operating System    2) Computer    3) Office    4) Compiler    5) Interpreter

17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can
1) run faster        2) go on line
3) share information and /or share peripheral equipment
4) E-mail    5) None

18. Information travels between components on the mother board through
1) Flash memory    2) CMOS    3) Bays    4) Buses    5) Peripherals

19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?
1) Lines & spaces    2) Layers & Planes    3) Height & Width
4) Rows & Columns    5) None

20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the
1) mouse    2) logo        3) hand    4) palm    5) cursor

 

Written Test Pattern

January 10, 2012 Written Test Syllabus 6 comments

Written Test Pattern is as

 

Questions – Total 200

 

Test of Reasoning-50 marks(50 questions)

Test of English Language-25 marks(50 questions)

Test of general awareness with special reference to banking industry-50 marks(50 questions)

Test of Professional Knowledge-75 marks(50 questions)

Marks

Total Number of marks:200

Negative marks for each wrong answer:0.25

Total written Exam Time:120 min(2 hours)

 

In short, less than a minute for a Question.

 

Languages

Question papers will be in 2 languages that of English and Hindi,

Except the only one section of test of English Language.

Tentative Day Of Exam : 11/03/2012