iDiOt J@V@

Tag Archive for Specialist Officer

Call Letter Download

March 7, 2012 admin IBPS No comments

Time to download the call letter for IBPS

Before downloading keep the registration number(or roll no) and password (or date of birth) handy (This information would be mailed to your email address, when you have registered with IBPS)

Then login to

http://ibpsreg.sifyitest.com/ibpssoclfeb12/login.php

You might view a screen similar to

IBPS Specialist Officer Call Letter Download Page

IBPS Call Letter Download

Provide any of the options (don’t provide both) and submit

You would be redirected to the call letter page which need to be printed.

Or could save it as PDF for future print out as well.

Last date : 10/Mar/2012…Hurry Up !

@ibpsexamforum IBPS Call Letter Download Steps: http://idiotjava.com/ibps-specialist-officer/call-letter-download

— IdiotJava (@IdiotJava) March 7, 2012

Area Networks

January 25, 2012 admin Architecture, Computer, IBPS, IT Officer, Networking, Professional Knowledge, Study Materials 5 comments

Networks can be categorized in several different ways. One approach defines the type of network according to the geographic area it spans. Local area networks (LANs), for example, typically reach across a single home, whereas wide area networks (WANs), reach across cities, states, or even across the world. The Internet is the world’s largest public WAN.

One way to categorize the different types of computer network designs is by their scope or scale. For historical reasons, the networking industry refers to nearly every type of design as some kind of area network. Common examples of area network types are:

LAN – Local Area Network

A LAN connects network devices over a relatively short distance. A networked office building, school, or home usually contains a single LAN, though sometimes one building will contain a few small LANs (perhaps one per room), and occasionally a LAN will span a group of nearby buildings. In TCP/IP networking, a LAN is often but not always implemented as a single IP subnet.

In addition to operating in a limited space, LANs are also typically owned, controlled, and managed by a single person or organization. They also tend to use certain connectivity technologies, primarily Ethernet and Token Ring.

WAN – Wide Area Network

As the term implies, a WAN spans a large physical distance. The Internet is the largest WAN, spanning the Earth.

A WAN is a geographically-dispersed collection of LANs. A network device called a router connects LANs to a WAN. In IP networking, the router maintains both a LAN address and a WAN address.

A WAN differs from a LAN in several important ways. Most WANs (like the Internet) are not owned by any one organization but rather exist under collective or distributed ownership and management. WANs tend to use technology like ATM, Frame Relay and X.25 for connectivity over the longer distances.

LAN, WAN and Home Networking

Residences typically employ one LAN and connect to the Internet WAN via an Internet Service Provider (ISP) using a broadband modem. The ISP provides a WAN IP address to the modem, and all of the computers on the home network use LAN (so-called private) IP addresses. All computers on the home LAN can communicate directly with each other but must go through a central gateway, typically a broadband router, to reach the ISP.

Other Types of Area Networks

While LAN and WAN are by far the most popular network types mentioned, other area networks include

Wireless Local Area Network – a LAN based on WiFi wireless network technology

Metropolitan Area Network – a network spanning a physical area larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN, such as a city. A MAN is typically owned an operated by a single entity such as a government body or large corporation.

Campus Area Network – a network spanning multiple LANs but smaller than a MAN, such as on a university or local business campus.

Storage Area Network – connects servers to data storage devices through a technology like Fibre Channel.

System Area Network – links high-performance computers with high-speed connections in a cluster configuration. Also known as Cluster Area Network

Reasoning Questions

January 18, 2012 admin IBPS, IT Officer, Notification, Written Test Syllabus One comment

IBPS Specialist Officer Reasoning Model Question Paper

1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

(A) BDF

(B) VXZ

(D) MOQ

(E) LNP

Ans : (C)

2. Among A. B, C, D and F each scoring different marks in the annual examination, D

scored less than only F among them. B scored more than A and C but less than D. Who

among them scored least marks among them?

(A) A

(B) C

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

3. In a class of 50 students M is eighth from top. H is 20th from bottom. How many

students arc there between M and H?

(A) 22

(B) 23

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. Meeta correctly remembers that her father’s birthday is after 8th July but before 12th

July. Her brother correctly remembers that their father’s birthday is after 10th July but

before 15th July. On which day of July was definitely their father’s birthday?

(A) 10th

(B) 11th

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

5. Which of the following is the middle digit of the second highest among the following five

numbers?

254 319 963 842 697

(A) 5

(B) 1

(D) 4

(E) 9

Ans : (D)

6. What should come next in the following number series?

9898798769876598765498765

(A) 3

(B) 4

(D) 1

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

(A) Copper

(B) Iron

(D) Zinc

(E) Steel

Ans : (E)

8. In a certain code language ‘pik da pa’ means ‘where are you’; ‘da naja’ means ‘you may

come’ and ‘na ka sa’ means ‘he may go’, which of the following means ‘come’ in that code

language?

(A) da

(B) ja

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

9. In a certain code BREAKDOWN is written as BFSCJMVNC. How is ORGANISED

written in that code?

(A) PSHBMCDRH

(B) BHSPMCDRH

(D) BHSPNHRDC

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

10. How many such digits are there in the number 58674139 each of which is as far away

from the beginning of the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in

descending order?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (C)

11. ‘BD’ is related to ‘EG’ and ‘MO’ is related to ‘PR’ in the same way as ‘FH’ is related to

(A) JM

(B) lL

(D) 1K

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

12. In a certain code LONG is written as 5123 and GEAR is written as 3748. How is LANE

written in that code?

(A) 5427

(B) 5247

(D) 5237

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

13. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters TEBI using each

letter only once in each word?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (B)

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the

one that does not belong to that group?

(A) 19

(B) 17

(D) 29

(E) 27

Ans : (E)

15. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word GUARDIAN each of which has as

many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16-22) In each question below are three statements followed by two conclusions

numbered I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be

at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically

follows from the three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answers

(A) If only conclusion I follows.

(B) If only conclusion II follows.

(C) If either conclusion I or II follows.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(E) If both conclusions I and II follow.

16. Statements:

All pots are rings.

All bangles are rings.

All rings arc paints.

Conclusions:

I. Some paints are pots.

II. Some bangles are paints.

Ans : (A)

17. Statements:

All goats are (lowers.

No flower is branch.

Some branches arc roots.

Conclusions:

I. Some roots are goats.

II. No root is goat.

Ans : (C)

18. Statements:

Some trees arc boxes.

All boxes are bricks.

All bricks are dogs.

Conclusions:

I. Some dogs are trees.

II. Some bricks arc trees.

Ans : (E)

19. Statements:

All tables arc windows.

All windows are rooms.

All rooms arc buses.

Conclusions:

I. Some buses arc tables.

II. Some rooms are tables.

Ans : (E)

20. Statements:

Some forests arc huts.

Some huts are walls.

Some walls are nets.

Conclusions:

I. Some nets arc forests.

II. Some nets are huts.

Ans : (D)

21. Statements:

All chair are pens.

Some pens are knives.

All knives are rats.

Conclusions:

I. Some rats are chairs.

II. Some rats are pens.

Ans : (B)

22. Statements:

Some desks arc tents.

Some tents are rivers.

All rivers are ponds.

Conclusions:

I. Some ponds arc tents.

II. Some ponds are desks.

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q.23-29) Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions

given below—

B # A R 5 8 E % M F 4 J 1 U @ H 2 © 9 T 1 6 * W 3 P # K 7 $ Y

23. Four of the following are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above

arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(A) l@4

(B) ©TH

(D) #73

(E) 921

Ans : (E)

24. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement each of which is either

immediately preceded by a symbol or immediately followed by a symbol or both?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) Four

Ans : (D)

25. If all the numbers in the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be

the eleventh from the right end?

(A) U

(B) T

(D) H

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

26. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (B)

27. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a letter and also immediately followed by a number?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (A)

28. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is

immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a symbol?

(A) None

(B) One

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (C)

29. Which of the following is the twelfth to the left of the twentieth from the left end of the

above arrangement?

(A) %

(B) W

(D) J

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

Directions (Q.30—36)—In each question below is given a group of digits/symbols followed by

four combinations of letters lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the

combinations correctly represents the group of digits/symbols based on the following letter

coding system and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the letter

combinations correctly represents the group of digits! symbols, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as

the answer.

Digit/Symbol:

4 % 3 9 $ 1 8 @ © 2 # 5 6 * 7 d

Letter Code:

P M I T R Q J F H A E U N B G L

Conditions:

(i) If the first element in the group is a symbol and the last element is a digit, the codes are to be

interchanged.

(ii) If the first element in the group is a digit and the last element is a symbol both are to be

coded as the code for the digit.

(iii) If both the first and the last elements are even digits both are to be coded as ‘X’.

(iv) If both the first and the last elements are odd digits, both are to be coded as ‘Y’.

30. 46*389

(A) PNBIJT

(B) XNBIJX

(D) PNBIJP

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

31. 931%©d

(A) TIQMHL

(B) LIQMHT

(D) TIQMHT

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

32. 7#$%35

(A) GERMIU

(B) UERMIG

(D) XERMIX

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

33. 8732@9

(A) TGIAFJ

(B) YGIAFY

(D) XGIAFX

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

34. 2*#836

(A) YBEJIY

(B) ABEJIN

(D) XBEJLX

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

35. $1896©

(A) RQJTNH

(B) HQJTNR

(D) YQJTNY

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

36. 4%@93*

(A) PMFTIB

(B) PMFTIP

(D) XMFTIX

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q.37—43) In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, $ and d are used with

the following meanings illustrated.

‘P % Q’ means ‘P is greater than Q’.

‘P d Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is smaller than Q’.

‘P © Q’ means ‘P is either smaller than or equal to Q’.

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is either greater than or equal to Q’.

In each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find out which of the

two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true. Give answers:

(A) If only conclusion I is true.

(B) If only conclusion II is true.

(C) If either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true.

(E) If both conclusions I and II are true.

37. Statements: V % B, B $ D, D © E

Conclusions:

I. E d B

II. D @ V

Ans : (B)

38. Statements: H $ N, N % R, R @ J

Conclusions:

I. R @ H

II. J %H

Ans : (A)

39. Statements: F d T, T $ M, M © R

Conclusions:

I. R $ F

II. M © F

Ans : (B)

40. Statements: W © D, D $ B, B @ H

Conclusions:

I. H % D

II.W @ B

Ans : (D)

41. Statements: F @ R, R © V, V $ T

Conclusions:

I. V % F

II. F @ T

Ans : (A)

42. Statements : N $ T, T d H, N @ W

Conclusions:

I. W % T

II. H © N

Ans : (E)

43. Statements: M @ J, J © R, R d K

Conclusions:

I. K d I

II. K % J

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q.44—49) Study the following information and answer the questions given below—

M, N, P. R. T, W, F and H arc sitting around a circle facing at the centre. P is third to the left of

M and second to the right of T. N is second to the right of P. R is second to the right of W who is

second to the right of M. F is not an immediate neighbour of P.

44. Who is fourth to the right of R?

(A) T

(B) R

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

45. In which of the following is the first person sitting in between the second and the third

person?

(A) NHM

(B) PHN

(D) TWF

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

46. Who is second to the right of F?

(A) M

(B) R

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

47. Who is third to the right of H?

(A) T

(B) W

(D) F

(E) Data inadequate

Ans : (D)

48. Who is to the immediate left of R?

(A) P

(B) H

(D) T

(E) Data inadequate

Ans : (D)

49. Who is to the immediate right of H?

(A) R

(B) F

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

50. Who is to the immediate right of P?

(A) H

(B) F

(D) Data inadequate

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

Quantitative Aptitude Questions

January 18, 2012 admin IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus No comments

IBPS Specialist Officer Quantitative Aptitude Model

Question Paper

1. 434 x 645=?

(A) 27840

(B) 297930

(D) 279930

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

2. 7 x ? =29.05

(A) 4.05

(B) 4.15

(D) 4.28

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

3. 725 / 25 – 13 = ?

(A) 16

(B) 29

(D) 18

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. (558 x 45) / (18 x 45) = ?

(A) 314

(B) 313

(D) 311

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

5. 559 + 995 = ? x 16

(A) 92.05

(B) 95.25

(D) 94.35

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. ((337 +146) x 8)=?

(A) 3884

(B) 1515

(D) 1505

(E) 3846

Ans : (C)

7. 806 / 26 =?

(A) 30

(B) 32

(D) 36

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

8. 7 3/4 + 5 1/4 + 8 1/4 = ?

(A) 20 1/4

(B) 21 1/2

(D) 21 3/4

(E) 20 3/4

Ans : (B)

9. 4758-2782-1430=?

(A) 356

(B) 396

(D) 546

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

10. ((8)2 + 164 + 4) / 14 = ?

(A) 25

(B) 64

(D) 7.5

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

11. 2/5 + 10/13 + 7/13 = ?

(A) 2 23/65

(B) 1 46/65

(D) 46/65

(E) 1 10/13

Ans : (B)

12. 248 of 7/8 + 110 of 20% = ?

(A) 192

(B) 202

(D) 239

(E) 242

Ans : (D)

13. 576 ÷ ? x 114 = 8208

(A) 8

(B) 7

(D) 9

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

14. 280% of 460 =?

(A) 1188

(B) 1284

(D) 1280

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

15. 484 of 3/4 + 366 of 5/6 = ?

(A) 663

(B) 844

(D) 848

(E) 666

Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following is equal to 30 x 246?

(A) 118 x 13+209 x 42

(B) 174 x 10+222 x 19

(D) 169 x 16+167 x 50

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

17. The cost of 9 kgs. of sugar is Rs. 279. What is the cost of 153 kgs. of sugar?

(A) Rs. 3.377

(B) Rs. 4.473

(D) Rs. 4.743

(E) Rs. 4.347

Ans : (D)

18. A bus travels at the speed of 49 kmph. and reaches its destination in 7 hours. What is the distance

covered by the bus?

(A) 343 km

(B) 283 km

(D) 245 km

(E) 340 km

Ans : (A)

19. What is the least number to be added to 1500 to make it a perfect square?

(A) 20

(B) 21

(D) 23

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

20. The sum of three consecutive integers is 39. Which of the following is the largest among the three?

(A) 12

(B) 15

(D) 16

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

21. 1/4th of 2/5th of a number is 82. What is the number?

(A) 410

(B) 820

(D) 220

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

22. Find the average of the following set of scores:

118, 186, 138, 204, 175, 229

(A) 148

(B) 152

(D) 160

(E) 175

Ans : (E)

23. How many pieces of 8.6 metres long cloth can be cut out of a length of 455.8 metres cloth?

(A) 43

(B) 48

(D) 53

(E) 62

Ans : (D)

24. The product of two successive numbers is 3192. What is the smallest number?

(A) 59

(B) 58

(D) 56

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

25. A banana costs Rs. 2.25 and an apple costs Rs. 3.00. What will be the total cost of 4 dozen of

bananas and 3 dozen of apples?

(A) Rs. 216

(B) Rs. 108

(D) Rs. 225

(E) Rs. 162

Ans : (A)

26. Three numbers are in the ratio of 3: 4 :5 respectively. If the sum of the first and third numbers is

more than the second number by 52, then which will be the largest number?

(A) 65

(B) 52

(D) 63

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

27. The compound interest on a certain amount for 2 years at the rate of 8 p.c.p.a. is Rs.312. What will

be the simple interest on the same amount and at the same rate and same time?

(A)Rs. 349.92

(B) Rs. 300

(C)Rs. 358.92

(D) Rs. 400

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

28. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by 7ems. If the length and breadth is decreased by

4cm. and 3 cms., then the area of the new rectangle is same as the area of the original. What will be

the perimeter of the original rectangle?

(A)45 cms.

(B)40 cems.

(D)55 cms.

(E)None of these

Ans : (C)

29. The sum of the digits of a two digit number is 12. If the new number formed by reversing the digits

is greater than the original number by 54, then what will be the original number?

(A)28

(B) 48

(D) 93

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

30. In a fraction, twice the numerator is two more than the denominator. If 3 is added to the

numerator and the denominator each, then the resultant fraction will be 2/3 .What was the original

fraction ?

(A)5/18

(B)6/13

(D)7/12

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

31. Four-fifth of a number is 10 more than two-third of the same number. What is the number?

(A) 70

(B) 75

(D) 85

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

32. A shopkeeper purchased 200 bulbs for Rs. 10 each. However, 5 bulbs were fused and had to be

thrown away. The remaining were sold at Rs. 12 each. What will be the percentage profit?

(A) 25

(B) 15

(D) 17

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

33. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the number series given below?

25, 34, 52,79, 115,?

(A)160

(B) 140

(D) 190

(E)None of these

Ans : (A)

34. ?/144= 49 /?

(A)95

(B) 76

(D) 84

(E)None of these

Ans : (D)

35. The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 252. What is the sum of the smallest and the largest

numbers?

(A)158

(B) 148

(D) 198

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

36. Ajay spends 25% of his salary on house rent, 5% on food, 15% on travel, 10% on clothes and the

remaining amount of Rs. 27,000 is saved. What is Ajay’s income?

(A) Rs. 60,000

(B) Rs. 80,500

(D) Rs. 70,500

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

37. In how many different ways, can the letters of the word ‘CRISIS’ be arranged ?

(A) 150

(B) 240

(D) 200

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

38. At each corner of a square park with side equal to 40 m, there is a flower bed in the form of a

sector of radius 14 m. What is the area of the remaining part of the park?

(A)984 Square m

(B) 789 Square m

(D) 1024 Square m

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

39. The length of a rectangular field is thrice its breadth. If the cost of cultivating the field at Rs.

367.20 per square meter is Rs. 27,540, then what is the perimeter of the rectangle?

(A)47m

(B) 39m

(D)40m

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

40. If the fractions8/5,7/2,9/5,5/4,4/5 are arranged in descending order of their values, which one will

be fourth?

(A) 4/5

(B) 5/4

(D) 8/5

(E) 7/2

Ans : (B)

41. The present ages of Chetna and Shikha are in the ratio of 5 :7 respectively. After 7 years, their ages

will be in the ratio of 11:14 respectively. What is the difference between their ages?

(A) 9 years

(B) 4 years

(D) 7 years

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

42. If 13 men can complete a piece of work in 36 days, then in how many days will 18 men complete

the same work?

(A) 16 days

(B) 20 days

(D) 30 days

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

43. If the area of a circle is 75.44 square cm then what is the circumference of the circle?

(A) 29.2 cm

(B) 28.9 cm

(D) 40.2 cm

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

44. Girish started a business investing Rs. 45,000. After 3 months, Vijay with Rs. 60,000 and After

another 6 months, Ankush with Rs. 90,000 joined him. At the end of the year, they made a profit of

Rs. 16,500. What is Girish’s share of profit ?

(A) Rs. 5,500

(B) Rs. 6,000

(D) As. 5,900

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

45. What is the average age of a family of five members, whose ages are 42, 49, 56, 63 and 35 years

respectively?

(A) 60 years

(B) 49 years

(D) 58 years

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

46. A and B are two taps which can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 20 minutes. However, there is a

leakage at the bottom which empty a filled tank in 40 minutes. If the tank is empty initially, how much

time will both the taps take to fill the tank?

(A) 8 minutes

(B) 7 minutes

(D) 15 minutes

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

47. What is 50% of 40% of Rs. 3,450?

(A) Rs. 690

(B) As. 520

(D) Rs. 499.2

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

48. If an amount of Rs. 5,86,700 is distributed equally amongst 25 persons, then how much would

each person get?

(A) Rs. 2,54,876

(B) Rs. 2,34,68

(D) Rs. 1,95,62

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

49. An urn contains 9 blue, 7 white and 4 black balls. If 2 balls are drawn at random, then what is the

probability that only one ball is white?

(A) 71/190

(B) 121/190

(D) 93/190

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

50. If the price of 5 transistors and 2 pen stands is Rs. 810, then what will be the price of 7 transistors

and 9 pen stands?

(A) Rs. 1,320

(B) Rs. 1,500

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

General Awareness Questions

January 16, 2012 admin IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus No comments

Sample Question Paper

1. A national policy to provide rural credit was launched by the Govt. of India in general and by RBI and NABARD in particular. Which of the following cannot be considered as one of the objectives of this National Policy ?

I. To ensure timely and increased flow of credit to the rural sector.

II. To make available credit facilities to every region of the country so that there are no regional imbalances.

III. To establish a well organized network of informal/non institutional credit system in the country.

(A) Only I

(B) Both I and II

(D) Both I and III

(E) All I, II and III

Ans : (C)

2. Under Bharat Nirman Programme of the Govt. of India action is proposed in various areas. Which of the following is not one of these areas ?

(A) Irrigation

(B) Rural Roads

(D) Rural Water Supply

(E) Rural Employment

Ans : (E)

3. Which of the following is the name of the legislation, which provides employment to the poors in remote areas of the country ?

(A) NREGA

(B) POTA

(D) COFEPOSA

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

4. The Reserve Bank of India issues coins and notes of various denominations. At present RBI does not issue coins of which of the following denominations ?

(A) 10 paise

(B) 25 paise

(D) 100 Rupee

(E) 500 Rupee

Ans : (A)

5. Many a times we come across a term ‘Know Your Customer’ in area of banking transactions. Which of the following is the main purpose of issuing Know Your Customer guidelines by the RBI ?

(A) To provide better customer service

(B) To keep a check on money laundering

(D) To make high value transactions faster

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. Which of the following is not correct about the various targets set for 11th Five Year Plan ? (Whole plan period 2007-12).

(A) Farm sector growth to be increased to 8%

(B) GDP growth rate to be increased to 10%

(D) Literacy rate is to be increased to 80%

(E) Reduction in unemployment amongst the educated youth

Ans : (A)

7. Many a times we come across a term read as ‘GM’ in reference to certain crops. What is the full form of the term ‘GM’ ?

(A) Geographically Moderated

(B) Genetically Modified

(D) Grown after Modifications

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

8. Many a times we see a term in newspapers ‘IPO’. What is the full form of the same ?

(A) Indian Public Offer

(B) Institutional Purchase Offer

(D) Indian Purchase Offer

(E) Initial Public Offer

Ans : (E)

9. Which of the following is not the part of the Charter of the National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) ?

I. NRHM has to pay special attention to 18 States, which have weak Public Health Indicators.

II. Mission provides for appointment of Accredited Social Health Activist (ASHA) in each one of four

metros so that these metros become free from Polio, Malaria, and HIV infections by 2010 ?

III. It aims at effective integration of Private Sector in health sector so that government burden can be

reduced to the level of mere policy maker.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(D) Only III

(E) Both I and III

Ans : (C)

10. Who amongst the following had said ‘small aim is crime’ ?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(D) Dr. A. P. J. Kalam

(E) Dr. Manmohan Singh

Ans : (D)

11. The rate on which banks lend to RBI is known as—

(A) CRR

(B) PLR

(D) REPO Rate

(E) SLR

Ans : (A)

12. Which of the following name is not associated with the insurance business in India ?

(A) Bajaj Allianz

(B) LIC

(D) Tata AIG

(E) GE Money

Ans : (E)

13. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of sports ?

(A) Kalidas Samman

(B) Dhyanchand Award

(D) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

14. Which of the following does not represent the name of a bank working in India ?

(A) YES

(B) HDFC

(D) Kotak Mahindra

(E) Axis

Ans : (C)

15. Who amongst the following addresses the nation on the Independence Day from the ramparts of

the Red Fort, Delhi ?

(A) President of India

(B) UPA Chair person

(D) Prime Minister of India

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

16. Many a time we read in the newspapers that RBI has changed or revised a particular ratio/rate by

a few basis points. What is basis point ?

(A) Ten per cent of one hundredth point

(B) One hundredth of 1%

(D) Ten per cent of 1000

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following issues cannot come under the purview of the functioning of the Human

Rights Commission of a country ?

(A) Racial Discrimination

(B) Treatment to Prisoners of War

(D) Child Abuse

(E) Climate Migration

Ans : (E)

18. A prominent international weekly sometime ago printed a caption on its cover page which read

‘Brazil Takes Off’. Other major newspapers/magazines also printed similar stories/articles in their

publications at that time. Why have magazines/newspapers decided to talk about Brazil these days ?

(1) All major economies of the world have been taking time to recover from the recession but Brazil

was one of those which was ‘Last in and First out’.

(2) Brazil is a member of BRIC but unlike China it is a democracy, unlike India, it has no hostile

neighbours, no insurgents and unlike Russia it exports more oil and arms and treats foreign investors

with more respect.

(3) Brazil is the world’s second largest booming economy.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(D) All 1, 2 and 3

(E) Only 1 and 2

Ans : (A)

19. Which of the following countries has conferred the honour of ‘Legion d’ honneur’ on Bharat Ratna

Lata Mangeshkar ?

(A) Germany

(B) Norway

(D) U.K.

(E) France

Ans : (E)

20. Expand the term NREGA—

(A) National Rural Employment Guarantee Agency

(B) National Rural Electrification Governing Agency

(D) New Rural Employment Guarantee Agency

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

21. The Rajya Sabha has recently cleared the new poll bill. Which one of the following amendment(s)

is/are made in this bill ? It has proposed -

(A) Increasing the security deposits to more than double

(B) Restricting the publication of exit polls

(D) Only (A) and (B)

(E) All (A), (B) and (C)

Ans : (D)

22. The market in which long term securities such as stocks and bonds are bought and sold is

commonly known as—

(A) Commodities Exchange

(B) Capital Market

(D) Bullion Market

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

23. Which one of the following was India’s top destination for exports during 2009 ?

(A) UAE

(B) USA

(D) China

(E) Bangladesh

Ans : (A)

24. Which one of the following will be the first High Court in India, to implement the concept of

‘ecourts’ ?

(A) Delhi

(B) A.P.

(D) Kolkata

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

25. Amongst the following, which one of the following sectors provides the highest contribution in

Industrial Production Index ?

(A) Crude Oil

(B) Petro Refinery Products

(D) Coal

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

26. Amongst the following sectors, which sector/segment has shown the highest per cent growth in

the current fiscal ?

(A) Mining

(B) Manufacturing

(D) Banking and Finance

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

27. As per the reports published in newspapers, India purchased around 200 tonnes of gold (almost

half the quantity of gold put up for sale) in Sept. 2009. India purchased this gold from which of the

following organizations ?

(A) World Bank

(B) Asian Development Bank

(D) International Gold Council

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

28. World Trade Organisation (WTO)’s ministerial meeting was organized in which of the following

cities recently ?

(A) Geneva

(B) Washington

(D) Port of Spain

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

29. In which one of the following countries, was the recent Commonwealth Meet (CHOGAM) held ?

(A) Trinidad

(B) Canada

(D) Jamaica

(E) U.K.

Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following decisions taken by the RBI will promote the concept of financial inclusion in

the country ?

(A) To appoint some additional entities as business correspondents

(B) To collect reasonable service charges from the customer in a transparent manner for providing the

services.

(D) Only (A) and (B)

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

31. For recapitalization of Public Sector Banks, the World Bank has decided to provide funds to India.

These funds will be made available in the form of—

(A) Soft Loan

(B) Term Loan

(D) Grants

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

32. Citizens of which one of he following age-groups (in years) are covered under the New Pension

System (NPS) ?

(A) 18–50

(B) 21–55

(D) 18–60

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

33. Which one of the following is the objective of the flagship scheme ‘Rashtriya Swasthya Bima

Yojana’ (RSBY) ?

(A) To provide life insurance cover to rural households

(B) To provide health insurance cover to rural households

(D) To provide life and health insurance covers only to people living below poverty line

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

34. Which one of the following had set up the N. R. Narayana Murthy Committee on issues relating to

Corporate Governance ?

(A) SEBI

(B) RBI

(D) Ministry of Finance, GOI

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

35. The proceeds of the disinvestment of profitable public sector units will be used for which of the

following purposes ?

(A) Expansion of existing capacity of PSEs

(B) Modernisation of PSEs

(D) Meeting the expenditure for various social sector schemes

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

36. Which one of the following is the target fixed for fiscal deficit in the year 2010-2011 ?

(A) 3.5%

(B) 4.0%

(D) 5.0%

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

37. Which one of the following companies is the largest producer of natural gas in the country ?

(A) ONGC

(B) OIL

(D) RIL

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

38. Which one of the following states has sought a package of Rs. 500 crores ($ 100 million) for its

Rural Poverty Reduction Programme ?

(A) M.P.

(B) Tamil Nadu

(D) Karnataka

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

39. Chinese objections have stalled the road work at the village of Demchok, on the Indian side of the

line of control. In which one of the following states is this village located ?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Assam

(D) Rajasthan

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

40. Constitutionally, which one of the following can levy Service Tax ?

(A) Union Govt. only

(B) State Govt. only

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

41. As per estimates given by the RBI the Economic Growth during the year 2010-11 will be at which of

the following levels ?

(A) 6.5%

(B) 7%

(D) 8%

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

42. Which of the following is/are correct about the RBI’s credit policy announced in April 2010 ?

I. Repo rate raised by 25 bps.

II. A new reporting platform was introduced for secondary market transactions in Certificate of

Deposits (CDs) and Commercial Papers (CPs).

III. Core Investment Companies (CICs) having an asset size of Rs. 100 crore are required to register also

with the RBI.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(D) All I, II and III

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

43. As per the announcement made by the RBI some Stock Exchanges in India are allowed to

introduce Plain Vanilla Currency Options. The term Plain Vanilla Currency Options is associated with

which of the following activities / operations ?

(A) Dollar–Rupee Exchange Rate

(B) Floating of Commercial Papers

(D) Deciding the opening price of a share on a particular business day

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following is not a term related to banking/finance operations ?

(A) Provision Coverage Ratio

(B) Securitization

(D) Commodification

(E) Derivatives

Ans : (C)

45. The process of “Artificial Application of Water to the soil usually for assisting in growing crops”, is

technically known as—

(A) water harvesting

(B) irrigation

(D) percolation

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

46. As per the news published in major newspapers / journals henceforth the Credit Card holders will

be able to access their credit card information though automated interactive voice response system

over the phone instead of speaking to the staff. This decision of the banks/credit card companies will

provide—

I. an additional hurdle to the customers as people feel comfortable in talking to the staff instead of

talking to a machine.

II. an additional security to the customers as this does not allow any staff to handle any transaction

directly.

III. some comfort to the banks as they will be able to reduce their staff strength.

(A) Only I

(B) Only II

(D) All I, II and III

(E) Only I and III

Ans : (B)

47. The 34th National Game which were postponed several times are scheduled to be held in which of

the following states ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Kerala

(D) Uttar Pradesh

(E) Jharkhand

Ans : (E)

48. Waste Water generates which of the following gases which is more powerful and dangerous than

CO2 ?

(A) Nitrogen

(B) Sulphur di-oxide

(D) Methane

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

49. Which of the following days was observed as World Water Day 2010 ?

(A) 20th June

(B) 22nd July

(D) 20th May

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

50. Late Vinda Karandikar who died a few months back was a famous—

(A) Author

(B) Cine-Actor

(D) Classical Singer

(E) Social Worker

Ans : (A)

Model Questions 2

January 13, 2012 admin English, IBPS, IT Officer No comments

Directions—(Q.1–10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These

numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the

blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

What Indian politicians and bureaucrats share with their scientist, engineer and carpenter counterparts

is their acceptance of mediocrity and lack of skill. The greatest moral failure of Indian institutions is the

tolerance of incompetence, …(1)… criminality or corruption. The tolerance of incompetence in …(2)… is a

result of a low cultural value attached to the creation and …(3)… of institutions.

Institution building is a hard work; it requires a combination of vision, commitment and performance.

Any institution involves a contract between those who …(4)… to the institution and those who support

it. The support can take the form of money or votes but that support must be …(5)… continuously. In a

properly functioning institutional system, the institutional contract …(6)… the institution members and

their supporters takes the form : you give me support and I will give you results. Competence is the

channel that sustains the flow of trust from supporters to institutions and back. If doctors don’t cure will

they not lose our trust ? While blaming individual politicians and babus for their corrupt ways, let us also

examine the system that accepts mediocrity and even lets it …(7)….

What we are seeing in India is a case of contract failure. The contractor who bribes an official and then

builds a leaky stadium is not just being …(8)…. He is sustaining a collusive system that subverts rules

regulating mutual co-operation between government institutions, market players and society as a

whole. In the case of endemic contract failure everyone …(9)…, including the contractor, for once the

public loses its trust in institution is even businessmen will …(10)… out on opportunities to make money.

The moral status of institutions is central to continued development and prosperity.

1. (A) as

(B) to

(D) not

(E) for

Ans : (D)

2. (A) turn

(B) individual

(D) partly

(E) importance

Ans : (B)

3. (A) destruction

(B) justification

(D) excess

(E) marginalization

Ans : (C)

4. (A) belong

(B) work

(D) employed

(E) trust

Ans : (A)

5. (A) returned

(B) earned

(D) discouraged

(E) asked

Ans : (C)

6. (A) suggests

(B) akin

(D) centered

(E) between

Ans : (E)

7. (A) question

(B) bolder

(D) out

(E) kill

Ans : (C)

8. (A) variant

(B) trivial

(D) corrupt

(E) generous

Ans : (D)

9. (A) succeeds

(B) suffers

(D) responsible

(E) encompasses

Ans : (B)

10. (A) storm

(B) venture

(D) get

(E) walk

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q.11–15) Rearrange the following five sentences (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) in the proper

sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(a) Thus, if we really value it, we will work hard to make it a reality.

(b) Inner peace is the most elusive thing that a human being can seek.

(c) The most important criterion in order to experience it is to value the importance of inner peace.

(d) To experience inner peace one doesn’t have to retreat to a Himalayan cave; rather, one can

experience inner peace seated exactly where they are by watching these thoughts.

(e) Nobody can gift the other inner peace at the same time it is only one’s own thoughts that can rob

them of their inner peace.

11. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (a)

(B) (b)

(D) (d)

(E) (e)

Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (a)

(B) (b)

(D) (d)

(E) (e)

Ans : (D)

13. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (e)

(B) (d)

(D) (b)

(E) (a)

Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (e)

(B) (d)

(D) (b)

(E) (a)

Ans : (A)

15. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) (a)

(B) (b)

(D) (d)

(E) (e)

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q.16–20) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has

been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a

whole.

16. It is very important to __________ that when the swine flu virus enters a human body, it takes a

minimum of one day to a maximum of eight days for the disease to develop _________

(A) gauge – extensively

(B) ascertain – further

(D) verify – remarkably

(E) fathom – clearly

Ans : (C)

17. The varsity’s poll process for _________ of new candidates has _________ poor response with only

ten thousand applications being received till date.

(A) entrusting – seen

(B) registration – evoked

(D) admission – visited

(E) experimenting – generated

Ans : (B)

18. Scientists, working to save the earth, have _______ ‘dry water’ that soaks carbon three times

better than water, and hence helps ______ global warming.

(A) aided – cut

(B) created – combat

(D) produced – increase

(E) invented – monitoring

Ans : (B)

19. After ________ payrolls and tightening perks to cope with the economic slowdown last year,

software companies are finding that a rising number of engineering and management graduates are

transferring their ________ to vocations such as manufacturing and banking.

(A) trimming – loyalties

(B) reducing – accounts

(D) increased – affections

(E) dropped – potentials

Ans : (A)

20. The first round of the contest had the students _______ themselves and _______ about their

hobbies.

(A) introducing – talking

(B) sensitizing – sketching

(D) acclimatizing – mentioning

(E) gearing – chalking

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q.21–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or

idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the

answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)

21. A year after the global financial crisis saw (A) / students from the best B-schools across the world

struggling for a job, (B) / a survey on management education this year thrown (C) / up some rather

interesting findings. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

22. The district authorities are making (A) / a last-ditch attempt to provide (B) / alternative solutions

to farmers but (C) / the options is clearly inadequate. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)

23. The results of the study showed that (A) / if the partners were willing to talk to each other (B) /

and arrive at a mutually agreeable decision, (C) / the joint decisions were more better than any one

person’s judgment. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)

24. Cleanliness drives will be (A) / conducted in various localities (B) / to opening the drains blocked

Ans : (C)

25. Initially, shop owners tried to (A) / offer some resistance to the demolition but (B) / seeing the

heavy presence of the police force, (C) / their resistance faded off. (D) No error (E)

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q.26–30) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the

questions.

At the time when the unfortunate incident of the ‘accidental’ exposure to radiation that affected

workers and waste collectors in Delhi as they handled radioactive material, took place, the issue of

waste disposal, particularly hazardous waste, made the headlines. The lives of those who live off

collecting and sorting waste came into out line of vision. But then the issue disappeared.

Long term policies that ensure that the safety and health of those who do such an essential job – “a

community of silent environmentalists” someone called them – are not such a high priority any more.

One reason is that the people affected are virtually invisible.

Waste collectors around India work silently, often late into the night, sorting out mountains of waste,

foraging for anything that can be sold. If you walk down some streets of Central Mumbai after 11 at

night, you will see an army of waste collectors. Men, women, children are all hard at work. They work

through the night and finally manage to get some sleep on the doorsteps of the shops on those streets.

By daylight they become invisible, having stowed their belongings in boxes behind the signs of the shops

on whose doorsteps they sleep. These are the people of the night, not noticed by those who inhabit the

areas in the day.

What is often not entirely appreciated is that a substantial percentage of waste collectors is women.

According to a study, 85 per cent of waste collectors in the city are women, five per cent are children

and 10 per cent are men. The majority of them are poor and landless people who came to the city

because of drought in their villages. The age group ranges from 7 to 70 years and 98 per cent of them

are illiterate. A survey of 60,000 waste collectors found a similar proportion : 60 per cent women, 20 per

cent men and 20 per cent children. Studies have revealed that 90 per cent of the women waste pickers

are primary bread-winners, often widowed or deserted. It is interesting how the gender division of

labour plays out even in the business of waste. While women, and children, do the more hazardous job

of sorting and separating the waste, the men deal with the dry garbage, which they transport to

wholesalers and factories. As a result, it is the women who are exposed to hazardous waste – none of

them wear any kind of protective gear – and also face the physical problems of constantly bending and

carrying head loads of the waste. Look at any group of waste collectors and you will spot the bent old

women who have been performing this function for decades.

In the slum-city of Mumbai, waste collectors experience the most acute degree of homelessness. While

poor people in other kinds of jobs somehow manage to find some shelter in a slum, irrespective of

whether it is legal or illegal, waste collectors sleep next to the garbage they have sorted. This is their

“wealth”, something they have to protect after they have collected and sorted it until they can monetize

it. Hence, near many garbage dumps, even in the better off localities of cities like Mumbai, you see

families of waste pickers asleep in the morning. And most often you see only women and children.

Why bring up waste collectors at a time when the main environmental issues being debated are the

larger issues of global warming, or environmental disasters such as the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico ?

This is because one cannot speak of the environment without considering its impact on the lives of

people. We have hundreds of small-scale and continuing environmental disasters taking place all around

us. But we overlook them so long as they do not impact our lives or our lifestyles. Millions of waste

pickers in India, who play a crucial role in dealing with the perennial environmental crisis of waste, risk

their lives and their health every single day. This is an on-going environmental issue that requires as

much attention from ordinary people, the media and policy makers as the larger macro issues.

26. Why, according to the author, is the issue of waste collectors as important as the issue of global

warming ?

1. As most waste collectors in big cities are children who are ultimately the future of our nation.

2. As without the waste collectors sorting waste the phenomenon of global warming would increase

exponentially.

3. As waste collectors deal with wastage which impacts the people’s everyday lives and is also

environmentally significant.

(A) Only (2) and (3)

(B) Only (1)

(D) Only (3)

(E) All (1), (2) and (3)

Ans : (D)

27. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?

(A) The General Public’s Apathetic ways

(B) The Unorganized Sector

(D) Waste Collectors – The World Over

(E) Recognizing the ‘Work’ in ‘Dirty Work’

Ans : (B)

28. Why are women waste collectors at a disadvantage as compared to the men waste collectors as

mentioned in the passage ?

(A) The men sell the waste collected by the women to wholesalers and keep all the money to

themselves without sharing it with the women.

(B) The women do the more dangerous and physical work of sorting through the garbage whereas men

mostly transport dry garbage.

ill effects of being exposed to the waste.

(D) The men force their wives and children to work for them whereas the women do not have this

luxury.

(E) The men are not as affected by the waste as the women waste collectors because of the difference in

their physical constitution.

Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following is true about waste collectors as given in the passage ?

1. Majority of waste collectors are people who have migrated from their village because of some

natural calamity.

2. Waste collectors prefer to sleep next to the garbage they have sorted.

3. Most waste collectors are not literate.

(A) Only (2)

(B) Only (1) and (2)

(D) Only (2) and (3)

(E) All (1), (2) and (3) are true.

Ans : (E)

30. Why are long term policies favouring waste collectors not high priority ?

(A) The Government is currently contemplating over the effects of the oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico and

does not have time for other issues.

(B) The plight of these people is not evident as they work late into the night and are not seen much

during the day.

(D) These waste collectors themselves are not in favour of being brought into the organized sector

because of the numerous complications involved.

(E) As previous such favourable policies failed to improve the conditions of these waste collectors as

they were not implemented effectively.

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q.31–32) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the

word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

31. CONSIDERING

(A) Untying

(B) Remembering

(D) Disregarding

(E) Condemning

Ans : (D)

32. HAZARDOUS

(A) Pleasant

(B) Efficient

(D) Risky

(E) Harmless

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q.33–35) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the

word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

33. INHABIT

(A) Reside in

(B) Encompass

(D) Submerge

(E) Are used to

Ans : (A)

34. FORAGING

(A) Penetrating

(B) Incising

(D) Begging

(E) Searching

Ans : (E)

35. MONETIZE

(A) Currency

(B) Buy

(D) Regulate

(E) Pay

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q.36–40) Rearrange the following six sentences 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 in the proper sequence to

form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—

1. However if this happens it will cause problems for the elderly who mainly use cheques.

2. The use of cheques has fallen dramatically in the past few years.

3. Thus cheques may be phased out gradually making sure that the needs of all consumers including the

elderly are met.

4. This is because more and more consumers are transferring money electronically by direct debit or

credit cards.

5. Without cheques they are likely to keep large amounts of cash in their homes making them vulnerable

to theft.

6. British banks have thus voted to phase cheques out in favour of these more modern payment methods.

36. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

(E) 5

Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 5

(E) 6

Ans : (A)

38. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

(E) 6

Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 5

(E) 6

Ans : (E)

40. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 5

(E) 1

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered.

These numbers are printed below the passage and against each five words are suggested one of which

fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

I was born and …(41)… up in a village by my grandparents. We had two granaries to …(42)… the rice that

we grew. …(43)… the better quality ‘white’ rice was kept in the granary in the front of the house, the

…(44)… quality ‘red’ rice was kept in the granary at the back. We never had …(45)… money in the house,

so those who came to ask for alms were given rice. My grandmother would send me to the front granary

to bring rice for them, but when she cooked for …(46)… of us she would use the red rice. I was …(47)…

by her behaviour. One day, I asked her why she did this ? She …(48)… and said something I will never

forget. “…(49)… whenever you give something to somebody, give the best in you, never the second

best.” …(50)… director of a foundation, if I help people today, it is because of this lesson she taught me.

41. (A) raised

(B) adopted

(D) brought

(E) grew

Ans : (D)

42. (A) pick

(B) save

(D) cultivate

(E) store

Ans : (E)

43. (A) Instead

(B) While

(D) Therefore

(E) For

Ans : (B)

44. (A) less

(B) worse

(D) inferior

(E) best

Ans : (D)

45. (A) plenty

(B) vast

(D) sufficiently

(E) much

Ans : (E)

46. (A) all

(B) remaining

(D) none

(E) those

Ans : (A)

47. (A) puzzled

(B) confusing

(D) frightened

(E) angry

Ans : (A)

48. (A) pleased

(B) shouted

(D) advised

(E) hugged

Ans : (C)

49. (A) remember

(B) pray

(D) think

(E) appeal

Ans : (A)

50. (A) when

(B) since

(D) perhaps

(E) as

Ans : (E)

Model Questions 1

January 13, 2012 admin English, IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus 5 comments

ENGLISH

Direction (1 – 5) : In the following questions, groups of four words are given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word

Q.1)

(1) Preposterous (2) Disasterous

(3) Murderous (4) Onerous

Q.2)

(1) Severity (2) Cruelity

(3) Sincerity (4) Superiority

Q.3)

(1) Begining (2) Winning

(3) Mining (4) Running

Q.4)

(1) Complement (2) Compliment

(3) Supplement (4) Requirement

Q.5)

(1) Amelirate (2) Zealot

(3) Penetrate (4) Stain

Direction (6 – 15) : In the following questions, a part of the sentence is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part as 1, 2 and 3 which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement is needed, you answer is ‘4’.

Q.6) She teaches us grammar, isn’t it?

(1) isn’t she? (2) doesn’t she?

(3) doesn’t it? (4) no improvement

Q.7) The struggle for independent is gaining movement every day.

(1) motion (2) movement

(3) momentum (4) no improvement

Q.8) She is quite without affection and has no false pride.

(1) admiration (2) affliction

(3) affectation (4) no improvement

Q.9) I complimented Raju for his promotion.

(1) with (2) on

(3) about (4) no improvement

Q.10) The food tastes deliciously.

(1) delicacy (2) delicious

(3) badly (4) no improvement

Q.11) I have seen much of the plays of Shakespeare acted.

(1) a few (2) many

(3) most (4) no improvement

Q.12) I have bought this house in 1970 for Rs. Two lakhs.

(1) had bought (2) bought

(3) have been bought (4) no improvement

Q.13) To child died from jaundice.

(1) with (2) of

(3) by (4) no improvement

Q.14) I will phone you after I shall arrive.

(1) after I shall have arrived

(2) after I arrive

(3) after I arrived

(4) no improvement

Q.15) It’s high time you come to a decision.

(1) came (2) had come

(3) have come (4) no improvement

Direction (16 – 20) : In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active/Passive Voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested below, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive / Active Voice.

Q.16) You surprise me.

(1) I am to be surprised (2) You are surprised

(3) I am surprised (4) Me is surprised

Q.17) The boys killed the snake with a stick.

(1) The snake was killed by the boys with a stick.

(2) A stick was killed by the boys with a snake.

(3) A snake with a stick was killed by the boys.

(4) A snake is killed by the boys with a stick.

Q.18) Let me do this.

(1) Let us do this. (2) This be done by me.

(3) Let this be done by me. (4) Let do this.

Q.19) The tiger caught a fox.

(1) A fox has been caught by the tiger.

(2) A fox was caught by the tiger.

(3) A fox is caught by the tiger.

(4) A fox had been caught by the tiger.

Q.20) Someone has lit the fire.

(1) The fire was lit by someone.

(2) You are requested to light the fire by someone.

(3) The firs has been lit by someone.

(4) The fire had been lit by someone.

Direction (21 – 25) : In the following passage, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6.

The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and named, P, Q, R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the parts and find out which of the four combinations is correct. Then find the correct answer .

Q.21) 1. Once a week Deesa led Moti Guj, the elephant, down to the river.

P. After inspection the two would stand up.

Q. Then Deesa looked at his feet and examined his whole body for sores.

R. The animal knew it was time to return.

S. The elephant lay down on his side, while Deesa rubbed him with a coir scrubber.

6. Both the elephant and the trainer would return home.

(1) SQPR (2) QSRP

(3) QPRS (4) RQSP

Q.22) 1. Anna had longed to see her son.

P. “He will arrive at the station at 10 O’clock, she said to herself.

Q. She prepared herself for it.

R. She looked at the clock.

S. There were only five minutes left.

6. She rushed out of her house and hailed a taxi to reach the station in time.

(1) QPRS (2) SPRQ

(3) PRQS (4) QSRP

Q.23) 1. Mr. Ramaswamy is a very strict man.

P. He earns nearly three thousand rupees a month.

Q. He also believes that it is foolish to waste one’s time or money.

R. He is not a poor man.

S. He believes that life means work only.

6. But he wants his children to lead a simple life.

(1) PSQR (2) SQRP

(3) RQPS (4) SRQP

Q.24) 1. It will be better.

P. to a few than enrol.

Q. to provide quality education.

R. them out as graduates.

S. en masse and churn.

6. after perfunctory teaching.

(1) QRSP (2) RSPQ

(3) QPSR (4) SRQP

Q.25) 1. ‘I was born here in the old city’ the girl told us.

P. her answer suggested that her family has roots.

Q. when we inquired.

R. as opposed to the modern towns that consist mostly of hotels.

S. and belongs to the traditional part where the temple are.

6. Some day people here are more ethnically pure.

(1) QPSR (2) SRPQ

(3) PSRQ (4) SRQP

ANSWERS

1. (2)

2. (2)

3. (1)

4. (4)

5. (1)

6. (2)

7. (3)

8. (3)

9. (2)

10. (4)

11. (2)

12. (2)

13. (2)

14. (2)

15. (1)

16. (3)

17. (1)

18. (3)

19. (2)

20. (3)

21. (1)

22. (1)

23. (2)

24. (3)

25. (1)

English Questions

January 13, 2012 admin English, IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus No comments

Please refer to these pages for Model English Questions

and download the previous english questions paper

Model Questions 3

January 13, 2012 admin English, IBPS, IT Officer, Written Test Syllabus No comments

ENGLISH Questions

Direction (1 – 5) : In the following passage, the first and the last parts of the sentence are numbered 1 and 6.

Q.1) 1. Making ourselves

P. our language

Q. part of growing into

R. masters of

S. is an important

6. full manhood or womanhood

(1) PSRQ (2) SQPR

(3) RPSQ (4) PRSQ

Q.2) 1. The very first battle they fought

P. and they had to fall back

Q. cross the border

R. was lost

S. letting the enemy

6. an enter the country

(1) RQSP (2) RPSQ

(3) QRPS (4) QPRS

Q.3) 1. A nation

P. the material assets it possesses

Q. is not made by

R. and collective determination

S. but by the will

6. of the people

(1) PQRS (2) QPSR

(3) RSPQ (4) SRPQ

Q.4) 1. When the Governor

P. the bell had rung

Q. justice should be immediately

R. he ordered that

S. found out why

6. done to the horse

(1) RSPQ (2) PQSR

(3) SPRQ (4) SQRP

Q.5) 1. When you ponder over

P. that the only hope

Q. you will realize

R. of world peace lies

S. the question deeply

6. in the United Nations

(1) QRSP (2) SPQR

(3) SQPR (4) RSPQ

Direction (6 – 15) : In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given.

The language problem is not solved by deciding the medium of instruction in the education institutions. The problem is 81. between State Governments still 82. At present, each State Government is 83 the process of 84 the 85 language as the medium for 86 purposes. Then the need for a stable language for 87 communication 88. Moreover, the Central Government shall 89 adopt a particular language for 90 own official work.

Q.6)

(1) communication (2) information

(3) intimation (4) decision

Q.7)

(1) stays (2) remains

(3) resides (4) rests

Q.8)

(1) into (2) through

(3) with (4) in

Q.9)

(1) adapting (2) imposing

(3) thrusting (4) adopting

Q.10)

(1) local (2) mother

(3) regional (4) foreign

Q.11)

(1) governmental (2) officious

(3) administrative (4) religious

Q.12)

(1) inter-state (2) regional

(3) international (4) intra-state

Q.13)

(1) come up (2) rises

(3) crops up (4) persists

Q.14)

(1) having to (2) have to

(3) had been (4) have been

Q.15)

(1) its (2) their

(3) our (4) his

Direction (16 – 25) : In the following passage, you have two brief passage with 5 questions following each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives

Passage – I

“The Law is an ass’, declared Mr. Bumble in “Oliver Twist”, and it often seems he was right. For punishment does not always fit the crime and it rarely happens that a prison term reforms a criminal.” Consider the following tow cases. The first one had happened in a village in Madural District. One Gopal One Gopal Yadhav, a hard-core criminal undergoing life sentence in the Madural Prison came out on ball for two days to perform the last rites of his mother. But he was rearrested on the same evening on the charges of murdering his neighbour’s son the settle old scores. The second case too came to Madural Court recently. Deserted by her husband a drunkard, his grief-stricken wife mixed rate poison in the food and gave it to her four children aged between 1 ½ and 9 years. Before she could swallow the same food she was unable to bear the pritiable sight of her children writhing in pain. She rushed them to hospital where she disclosed everything. She was able to save the lives of the first three children, but the law of the country awarded her tow years imprisonment (later commuted to one year) on the charges of plotting to kill her children. Would you say women like here are a danger to the society? Would you call them criminal? It is high time that we found other ways of registering our disapproval of wrong doing. To imprison the bad is expedient – when they are dangerous. To imprison the mad and the merely sad, as we do, is not only unnecessary, it is uncivilized.

Q.16) The writer says ‘The Law is an ass’ because

(1) it is as patient as an ass

(2) it does not punish the criminals severely

(3) punishments do not help to reform criminals

(4) criminals can escape punishment.

Q.17) Gopal Yadhav came out on ball

(1) in order to murder his enemy

(2) to cremate his mother

(3) so that he could be rearrested

(4) to see his four children undergoing treatment in the hospital

Q.18) The mother in the second case cannot be called a criminal because she

(1) rushed her children to the hospital

(2) mixed an ineffective poison in the food

(3) was able to save three out of four children

(4) was deserted by her husband.

Q.19) The writer argues that punishments for people like the woman in the second case are not necessary

because they

(1) don’t commit crimes frequently

(2) are less dangerous than other criminals

(3) represent poor society

(4) should not be clubbed with other criminals

Q.20) The main difference between the two case is

(1) the first is about a man and the other is about a woman

(2) the woman regrets what she has done, but not the man

(3) the man is a lifer but the woman is not

(4) the man and the woman belong to different communities

Passage – II

The United Nations Fourth World Women’s Conference had a colourful start at Beijing on September 4th. This is the century’s most crucial conference which aimed at changing the status quo of women’s lives characterized by inequality. In a preliminary session, Ms. Aung Suu Kyi, the Nobel Peace Prize winner said that expanding women’s power will bring greater peace and tolerance to the world. “It is not the prerogative of men alone to bring light to this orld. Women with their capacity for compassion and self-sacrifice, with their courage and perseverance have done much to dissipate the darkness of intolerance and hate”, said Ms. Suu Kyi. In the afternoon session Ms. Ayako Yamaguchi, a Japanese delegate, launched a petition against beauty pageants. “What right do men have to evaluate women in a few minutes? All women are beautiful. Beauty is something different for everyone”, Ms Ayako Yamaguchi said.

“Beauty contests are used as trade and exploitation. The training is very vigorous but it is the organizers, not the women, who get the full benefit”, said Ms Ranjana Bhargava. “After the competition, the women become trapped and the abuse and the bad things begin. The women are tainted no one else will accept them”.

Q.21) The Women’s World Conference was very important because

(1) Ms Aung Suu Kyi has just been awarded the prestigious Nobel Peace Prize

(2) Ms Aung Suu Kyi was taking part in the Conference

(3) its main purpose was to change inequalities between men and women

(4) it was to protest against beauty contests

Q.22) Which of the following arguments of Ms Aung Suu Kyi is not true?

(1) Women also can bring greater peace to the world.

(2) Men cannot claim they have done more for peace.

(3) Women have the capacity for compassion and sacrifice.

(4) Men have done nothing to dissipate ignorance.

Q.23) The main emphasis in Ms. Ayako Yamaguchi’s argument is

(1) men have no right to judge women.

(2) men should be given more time to evaluate women.

(3) all women are beautiful in a way.

(4) beauty contests are not necessary.

Q.24) “Beauty is something different for everyone”.

This statement means

(1) beauty is certainly different from ugliness.

(2) beautiful women do not mingle with other women.

(3) beauty cannot be defined adequately.

(4) each woman is beautiful.

Q.25) “Colourful start” in the first sentence refers to

(1) participants who were all beautiful

(2) a lot of excitement and cheerfulness in the conference hall

(3) absence of black coloured girls

(4) flags of various colours outside the conference hall

ANSWERS

1. (3)

2. (2)

3. (2)

4. (3)

5. (3)

6. (1)

7. (2)

8. (4)

9. (4)

10. (3)

11. (3)

12. (1)

13. (1)

14. (2)

15. (1)

16. (3)

17. (2)

18. (1)

19. (2)

20. (2)

21. (3)

22. (4)

23. (1)

24. (3)

25. (2)

Professional Knowledge Questions Set one

January 12, 2012 admin IBPS, IT Officer, Notification, Professional Knowledge 5 comments

IBPS Professional Knowledge Sample Questions Set One

1. All of the following are examples of real security and privacy risks EXCEPT:
A. hackers.
B. spam.
C. viruses.
D. identity theft.
Answer: B
2. A process known as ____________ is used by large retailers to study trends.
A. data mining
B. data selection
C. POS
D. data conversion
Answer: A
3. ____________terminals (formerly known as cash registers) are often connected to complex inventory and sales computer systems.
A. Data
B. Point-of-sale (POS)
C. Sales
D. Query
Answer: B
4. A(n) ____________ system is a small, wireless handheld computer that scans an itemâ€™s tag and pulls up the current price (and any special offers) as you shop.
A. PSS
B. POS
C. inventory
D. data mining
Answer: A
5. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminalâ€™s computer is an example of a law enforcement specialty called:
A. robotics.
B. simulation.
C. computer forensics.
D. animation.
Answer: C
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the four major data processing functions of a computer?
A. gathering data
B. processing data into information
C. analyzing the data or information
D. storing the data or information
Answer: C
7. ____________ tags, when placed on an animal, can be used to record and track in a database all of the animalâ€™s movements.
A. POS
B. RFID
C. PPS
D. GPS
Answer: B
8. Surgeons can perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually. This technology is known as:
A. robotics.
B. computer forensics.
C. simulation.
D. forecasting.
Answer: A
9. Technology no longer protected by copyright, available to everyone, is considered to be:
A. proprietary.
B. open.
C. experimental.
D. in the public domain.
Answer: A
10. ____________ is the study of molecules and structures whose size ranges from 1 to 100 nanometers.
A. Nanoscience
B. Microelectrodes
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
11. ____________ is the science that attempts to produce machines that display the same type of intelligence that humans do.
A. Nanoscience
B. Nanotechnology
C. Simulation
D. Artificial intelligence (AI)
Answer: D

12. ____________ is data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion.
A. A process
B. Software
C. Storage
D. Information
Answer: D
13. The name for the way that computers manipulate data into information is called:
A. programming.
B. processing.
C. storing.
D. organizing.
Answer: B
14. Computers gather data, which means that they allow users to ____________ data.
A. present
B. input
C. output
D. store
Answer: B
15. After a picture has been taken with a digital camera and processed appropriately, the actual print of the picture is considered:
A. data.
B. output.
C. input.
D. the process.
Answer: B

16. Computers use the ____________ language to process data.
A. processing
B. kilobyte
C. binary
D. representational
Answer: C
17. Computers process data into information by working exclusively with:
A. multimedia.
B. words.
C. characters.
D. numbers.
Answer: D
18. In the binary language each letter of the alphabet, each number and each special character is made up of a unique combination of:
A. eight bytes.
B. eight kilobytes.
C. eight characters.
D. eight bits.
Answer: D
19. The term bit is short for:
A. megabyte.
B. binary language.
C. binary digit.
D. binary number.
Answer: C

20. A string of eight 0s and 1s is called a:
A. megabyte.
B. byte.
C. kilobyte.
D. gigabyte.
Answer: B
21. A ____________ is approximately one billion bytes.
A. kilobyte
B. bit
C. gigabyte
D. megabyte
Answer: C
22. A ____________ is approximately a million bytes.
A. gigabyte
B. kilobyte
C. megabyte
D. terabyte
Answer: C
23. ____________ is any part of the computer that you can physically touch.
A. Hardware
B. A device
C. A peripheral
D. An application
Answer: A

24. The components that process data are located in the:
A. input devices.
B. output devices.
C. system unit.
D. storage component.
Answer: C
25. All of the following are examples of input devices EXCEPT a:
A. scanner.
B. mouse.
C. keyboard.
D. printer.
Answer: D
26. Which of the following is an example of an input device?
A. scanner
B. speaker
C. CD
D. printer
Answer: A
27. All of the following are examples of storage devices EXCEPT:
A. hard disk drives.
B. printers.
C. floppy disk drives.
D. CD drives.
Answer: B
28. The ____________, also called the â€œbrainsâ€ of the computer, is responsible for processing data.
A. motherboard
B. memory
C. RAM
D. central processing unit (CPU)
Answer: D
29. The CPU and memory are located on the:
A. expansion board.
B. motherboard.
C. storage device.
D. output device.
Answer: B
30. Word processing, spreadsheet, and photo-editing are examples of:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. operating system software.
D. platform software.
Answer: A
31. ____________ is a set of computer programs used on a computer to help perform tasks.
A. An instruction
B. Software
C. Memory
D. A processor
Answer: B
32. System software is the set of programs that enables your computerâ€™s hardware devices and ____________ software to work together.
A. management
B. processing
C. utility
D. application
Answer: D
33. The PC (personal computer) and the Apple Macintosh are examples of two different:
A. platforms.
B. applications.
C. programs.
D. storage devices.
Answer: A
34. Apple Macintoshes (Macs) and PCs use different ____________ to process data and different operating systems.
A. languages
B. methods
C. CPUs
D. storage devices
Answer: C
35. Servers are computers that provide resources to other computers connected to a:
A. network.
B. mainframe.
C. supercomputer.
D. client.
Answer: A
36. Smaller and less expensive PC-based servers are replacing ____________ in many businesses.
A. supercomputers
B. clients
C. laptops
D. mainframes
Answer: D
37. ____________ are specially designed computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly.
A. Servers
B. Supercomputers
C. Laptops
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
38. DSL is an example of a(n) ____________ connection.
A. network
B. wireless
C. slow
D. broadband
Answer: D
39. The difference between people with access to computers and the Internet and those without this access is known as the:
A. digital divide.
B. Internet divide.
C. Web divide.
D. broadband divide.
Answer: A
40. ____________ is the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale.
A. Nanotechnology
B. Micro-technology
C. Computer forensics
D. Artificial intelligence
Answer: A
41. Which of the following is the correct order of the four major functions of a computer?
A. Process Ã Output Ã Input Ã Storage
B. Input Ã OutputÃ Process Ã Storage
C. Process Ã Storage Ã Input Ã Output
D. Input Ã Process Ã Output Ã Storage
Answer: D
42. ____________ bits equal one byte.
A. Eight
B. Two
C. One thousand
D. One million
Answer: A
43. The binary language consists of ____________ digit(s).
A. 8
B. 2
C. 1,000
D. 1
Answer: B
44. A byte can hold one ____________ of data.
A. bit
B. binary digit
C. character
D. kilobyte
Answer: C
45. ____________ controls the way in which the computer system functions and provides a means by which users can interact with the computer.
A. The platform
B. The operating system
C. Application software
D. The motherboard
Answer: B
46. The operating system is the most common type of ____________ software.
A. communication
B. application
C. system
D. word-processing software
Answer: C
47. ____________ are specially designed computer chips that reside inside other devices, such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
A. Servers
B. Embedded computers
C. Robotic computers
D. Mainframes
Answer: B
48. The steps and tasks needed to process data, such as responses to questions or clicking an icon, are called:
A. instructions.
B. the operating system.
C. application software.
D. the system unit.
Answer: A
49. The two broad categories of software are:
A. word processing and spreadsheet.
B. transaction and application.
C. Windows and Mac OS.
D. system and application.
Answer: D
50. The metal or plastic case that holds all the physical parts of the computer is the:
A. system unit.
B. CPU.
C. mainframe.
D. platform.
Answer: A

Fill in the Blank:

51. Between PCs and Macs, the ____________ is the platform of choice for graphic design and animation.
Answer: Mac
52. The ____________ is the program that manages the hardware of the computer system, including the CPU, memory, storage devices, and input/output devices.
Answer: operating system

53. The type of operating system software you use depends on your computerâ€™s ____________.
Answer: platform
54. ____________software helps you carry out tasks, such as typing a document or creating a spreadsheet.
Answer: Application
55. ____________are the fastest and most expensive computers.
Answer: Supercomputers
56. A ____________ is approximately 1,000 bytes.
Answer: kilobyte
57. Input devices are used to provide the steps and tasks the computer needs to process data, and these steps and tasks are called ____________.
Answer: instructions
58. A computer gathers data, processes it, outputs the data or information, and ____________ the data or information.
Answer: stores

59. The binary language consists of two digits: ____________ and ____________.
Answer: 0 and 1
60. A string of ____________ 0s and 1s is called a byte.
Answer: eight (8)
61. The devices you use to enter data into a computer system are known as ____________ devices.
Answer: input
62. The devices on a computer system that let you see the processed information are known as ____________ devices.
Answer: output
63. ____________ is the set of computer instructions or programs that enables the hardware to perform different tasks.
Answer: Software
64. When you connect to the ____________, your computer is communicating with a server at your Internet service provider (ISP).
Answer: Internet
65. ____________ are computers that excel at executing many different computer programs at the same time.
Answer: Mainframes
66. ____________is the application of computer systems and techniques to gather legal evidence.
Answer: Computer forensics
67. ____________ is the science that attempts to create machines that will emulate the human thought process.
Answer: Artificial intelligence (AI)
68. Macintosh computers use the Macintosh operating system (Mac OS), whereas PCs generally run ____________ as an operating system.
Answer: Microsoft Windows
69. A process known as ____________ tracks trends and allows retailers to respond to consumer buying patterns.
Answer: data mining
70. Hard disk drives and CD drives are examples of ____________ devices.
Answer: storage
71. You would use ____________ software to create spreadsheets, type documents, and edit photos.
Answer: application
72. ____________ are computers that support hundreds or thousands of users simultaneously.
Answer: Mainframes
73. ____________ is the term given to the act of stealing someoneâ€™s identity and ruining their credit rating.
Answer: Identity theft
74. Surgeons are using ____________ to guide robots to perform delicate surgery.
Answer: computers
75. Patient ____________ are life-sized mannequins that have a pulse and a heartbeat and respond to procedures just like humans.
Answer: simulators
True and False

76. Currently, the performance of tasks by robots is based on preprogrammed algorithms.
Answer: True
77. Data can be a number, a word, a picture, or a sound.
Answer: True

78. Strictly defined, a computer is a data processing device.
Answer: True
79. The discrepancy between the â€œhavesâ€ and â€œhave-notsâ€ with regard to computer technology is commonly referred to as the digital society.
Answer: False (digital divide)
80. One of the benefits of becoming computer fluent is being a savvy computer user and consumer and knowing how to avoid viruses, the programs that pose threats to computer security.
Answer: True
81. Trend-spotting programs, developed for business, have been used to predict criminal activity.
Answer: True
82. Employers do not have the right to monitor e-mail and network traffic on employee systems used at work.
Answer: False
83. Clicking on an icon with the mouse is a form of giving an instruction to the computer.
Answer: True
84. Output devices store instructions or data that the CPU processes.
Answer: False (memory)
85. The CPU and memory are located on a special circuit board in the system unit called the motherboard.
Answer: True
86. Nanostructures represent the smallest human-made structures that can be built.
Answer: True

87. The main difference between a supercomputer and a mainframe is that supercomputers are designed to execute a few programs as quickly as possible, whereas mainframes are designed to handle many programs running at the same time (but at a slower pace).
Answer: True
88. Being computer fluent means that you should be able to build a computer yourself.
Answer: False
89. Embedded computers are self-contained computer devices that have their own programming and do not receive input.
Answer: True
90. A Web browser is a special device that is installed in your computer that allows it to communicate with other devices on a network.
Answer: False (network adapter)
91. With a wireless network, it is easier to relocate devices.
Answer: True
92. The most common type of memory that the computer uses to process data is ROM.
Answer: False (RAM)

Matching:

93. Match the following terms with their approximate size:
I. kilobyte A. one million bytes
II. byte B. eight bits
III. gigabyte C. one thousand bytes
IV. megabyte D. one billion bytes
V. terabyte E. one trillion bytes
Answer: C, B, D, A, E

94. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. printer A. storage device
II. scanner B. output device
III. RAM C. input device
IV. CPU D. a type of memory
V. CD drive E. processor
Answer: B, C, D, E, A

95. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. mainframe A. the most expensive computers that perform complex calculations extremely rapidly
II. supercomputer B. a computer that provides resources to other computers connected to a network
III. embedded computer C. a large, expensive computer that supports hundreds or thousands of users simultaneously
IV. PDA D. a self-contained computer device that usually performs preprogrammed functions such as temperature control
V. server E. a small mobile computing device
Answer: C, A, D, E, B

96. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. software A. transforming data into information
II. hardware B. data that has been organized or presented in a meaningful fashion
III. operating system C. any part of the computer that you can physically touch
IV. processing D. a set of computer programs that enables hardware to perform different tasks
V. information E. the most common type of system software, it controls the way in which the computer system functions
Answer: D, C, E, A, B

97. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. system software A. the set of programs that enables computer hardware devices and application software to work together
II. application software B. the kind of operating system software you will use depends on this
III. platform C. operating system software generally used on PCs
IV. Microsoft Windows D. a set of programs used to accomplish a specific task
V. Mac OS E. operating system software used on the Apple Macintosh
Answer: A, D, B, C, E

98. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. data A. the main circuit board in the system unit
II. memory B. the representation of a fact or idea (unprocessed information)
III. output C. processed data or information
IV. storage D. holds instructions or data that the CPU processes
V. motherboard E. data or information that can be accessed again
Answer: B, D, C, E, A

99. Match the following terms with their meanings:
I. bit A. the science revolving around the use of nanostructures to build devices on an extremely small scale
II. binary language B. the case that contains the system components
III. instructions C. consists of 0s and 1s
IV. system unit D. short for binary digit
V. nanotechnology E. steps and tasks necessary to process data into usable information
Answer: D, C, E, B, A

100. Match the following fields to the related computer technology:
I. medicine A. Internet research and virtual tours
II. business B. data mining
III. law enforcement C. robotics and simulation
IV. education D. computer forensics
V. archeology E. digital recreations of ruins
Answer: C, B, D, A, E

« Older Entries

iDiOt J@V@

everythinz iz pauzible witz Idiotz J@V@

Tag Archive for Specialist Officer

Call Letter Download

Area Networks

LAN – Local Area Network

WAN – Wide Area Network

LAN, WAN and Home Networking

Other Types of Area Networks

Reasoning Questions

Quantitative Aptitude Questions

General Awareness Questions

Sample Question Paper

Model Questions 2

Model Questions 1

English Questions

Please refer to these pages for Model English Questions

Model Questions 3

ENGLISH Questions

Professional Knowledge Questions Set one

IBPS Professional Knowledge Sample Questions Set One

Recent Job Postings

iDiOt J@V@

everythinz iz pauzible witz Idiotz J@V@

Tag Archive for Specialist Officer

Share this:

LAN – Local Area Network

WAN – Wide Area Network

LAN, WAN and Home Networking

Other Types of Area Networks

Share this:

Share this:

Share this:

Sample Question Paper

Share this:

Share this:

Share this:

Please refer to these pages for Model English Questions

Share this:

ENGLISH Questions

Share this:

IBPS Professional Knowledge Sample Questions Set One

Share this:

Recent Job Postings